Description : . If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company
Last Answer : b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission
Description : If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company
Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions
Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC
Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind
Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace
Description : For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is:
Last Answer : the estimated off-block time
Description : When submitting a flight plan before flight, departure time is?
Last Answer : at which the aircraft leaves the parking area
Description : For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time
Last Answer : b. 60 minutes before departure
Description : In flight, it is possible to: i. File an IFR flight plan ii. Modify an active flight plan iii. Cancel a VFR flight plan iv. Close a VFR flight plan (rules of the air ann2 3.3.5) a. i and ii b. i, ii, iii and iv c. ii, iii and iv d. i and iv
Last Answer : b. i, ii, iii and iv
Description : Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be: a. VFR/IFR b. SMOOTH/TURBULENT c. NOT BAD/SO SO d. VMC/IMC
Last Answer : d. VMC/IMC
Description : What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR flights flying in the same direction below FL 290? a. 500ft b. 1000ft c. 2000ft d. 4000ft
Last Answer : c. 2000ft
Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation
Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative
Description : The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is: a. 500 feet (150m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300m) d. 2000 feet (600m)
Last Answer : c. 1000 feet (300m)
Description : What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c. ... need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required
Last Answer : b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not
Description : What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled airspace unless otherwise directed? a. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the ... planned track d. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track
Last Answer : b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the estimated position of the aircraft
Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA
Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
Description : The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates: a. Loss of communications b. Distress c. Urgency d. Hijacking
Last Answer : a. Loss of communications
Description : Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless: a. They operate outside controlled airspace b. If asked by ATC c. Within controlled airspace d. They operate a transponder with mode C
Last Answer : b. If asked by ATC
Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the ... throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible
Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind
Description : After flying for 16 minutes at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after:
Last Answer : 24 mins
Description : After flying for 16 minutes at 100kt TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: a. 10 min 40 sec b. 20 min c. 24 min d. 16 min
Last Answer : c. 24 min
Description : How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr
Last Answer : a. 3.00 hrs
Description : During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line
Last Answer : c. Within 15° of runway centre-line
Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below
Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability
Description : What is the absolute minimum time a pilot should stop drinking before flying
Last Answer : 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
Description : What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of ... that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
Last Answer : d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
Description : If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The ... temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight
Last Answer : d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight
Description : Disorientation is more likely when pilot is
Last Answer : letter b. – 1,2 and 4 only are correct
Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can
Last Answer : return to flying duties after a suitable course treatment is complete
Description : A pilot suffering disorientation should
Last Answer : line up with visual reference (e.g. Horizon)
Description : A pilot can improve probability of detecting other aircraft by
Last Answer : minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible
Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should
Last Answer : land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Description : The co pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the commanders decision
Last Answer : False
Description : What should a pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC
Last Answer : instruments
Description : What is the 1st action taken by the pilot in the event of a cabin decompression above 10,000 ft
Last Answer : don oxygen mask and check oxygen flow
Description : A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to ... lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side
Last Answer : a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible
Description : A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are symptoms of: a. The Occulogyral Effect b. Flicker-vertigo c. Pilot’s Vertigo d. Nystagmus
Last Answer : c. Pilot’s Vertigo
Description : What are the personality traits of a good pilot? a. Reliable and stable b. Stable and extraverted c. Reliable and extraverted d. Reliable, calm and extraverted
Last Answer : b. Stable and extraverted
Description : What should the pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC? a. Vision b. Turning head to recover from disorientation c. Sense of balance d. Instruments
Last Answer : d. Instruments
Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a ... he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete
Last Answer : d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete
Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... relieve the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Description : Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & 3 only ... 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct
Last Answer : b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct
Description : A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday
Last Answer : c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing
Description : The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander’s decision. a. True b. False
Last Answer : b. False
Description : With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions d. Rely on the checklist for all procedures
Last Answer : c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions
Description : To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during the landing the pilot of a modern airliner should:
Last Answer : make a “positive” landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible.
Description : If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the ICAO flight plan, she must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a specified time of her planned ETA at destination. The time is:
Last Answer : 30 mins
Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP
Last Answer : c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP
Description : A type rating is applicable to: a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training
Last Answer : c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation
Description : When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code
Last Answer : d. Read back mode and code