Description : The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander’s decision. a. True b. False
Last Answer : b. False
Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below
Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability
Description : Disorientation is more likely when pilot is
Last Answer : letter b. – 1,2 and 4 only are correct
Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can
Last Answer : return to flying duties after a suitable course treatment is complete
Description : A pilot suffering disorientation should
Last Answer : line up with visual reference (e.g. Horizon)
Description : A pilot can improve probability of detecting other aircraft by
Last Answer : minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible
Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should
Last Answer : land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Description : What is the absolute minimum time a pilot should stop drinking before flying
Last Answer : 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
Description : What should a pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC
Last Answer : instruments
Description : What is the 1st action taken by the pilot in the event of a cabin decompression above 10,000 ft
Last Answer : don oxygen mask and check oxygen flow
Description : A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to ... lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side
Last Answer : a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible
Description : A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are symptoms of: a. The Occulogyral Effect b. Flicker-vertigo c. Pilot’s Vertigo d. Nystagmus
Last Answer : c. Pilot’s Vertigo
Description : What are the personality traits of a good pilot? a. Reliable and stable b. Stable and extraverted c. Reliable and extraverted d. Reliable, calm and extraverted
Last Answer : b. Stable and extraverted
Description : What should the pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC? a. Vision b. Turning head to recover from disorientation c. Sense of balance d. Instruments
Last Answer : d. Instruments
Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a ... he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete
Last Answer : d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete
Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... relieve the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Description : Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & 3 only ... 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct
Last Answer : b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct
Description : A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday
Last Answer : c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing
Description : With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions d. Rely on the checklist for all procedures
Last Answer : c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions
Description : What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of ... that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
Last Answer : d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
Description : To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during the landing the pilot of a modern airliner should:
Last Answer : make a “positive” landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible.
Description : If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the ICAO flight plan, she must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a specified time of her planned ETA at destination. The time is:
Last Answer : 30 mins
Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP
Last Answer : c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP
Description : If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot:
Last Answer : may proceed with the flight with ATC permission
Description : . If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company
Last Answer : b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission
Description : A type rating is applicable to: a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training
Last Answer : c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation
Description : When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code
Last Answer : d. Read back mode and code
Description : The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft
Last Answer : a. Pilot in command
Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions
Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC
Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above
Last Answer : d. All of the above
Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind
Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace
Description : The most likely cause of brake fade is: a. Oil or grease on the brake drums b. Worn stators c. The pilot reducing the brake pressure d. The brake pads overheating
Last Answer : d. The brake pads overheating
Description : The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature
Last Answer : c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture
Description : If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The ... temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight
Last Answer : d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight
Description : When smoke appears in the cockpit, after donning the oxygen mask the pilot should select: a. Normal b. 100% c. Diluter d. Emergency
Last Answer : d. Emergency
Description : According to this lesson, what term is the way for commanders to adhere to LoW by weighing risk of collateral damage against military necessity and proportionality within the framework of the military decision-making process?
Last Answer : Collateral Damage Estimation Methodology (CDM)
Description : Decision making in emergency situations requires primarily
Last Answer : the distribution of tasks in crew coordination
Description : What should a captain do before making a non urgent decision
Last Answer : encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion
Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF
Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach
Description : The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that the braking action is:
Last Answer : poor
Description : The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that braking action: a. Poor b. Medium to poor c. Medium d. Slippery
Last Answer : a. Poor
Description : The phases of a project life cycle are: a. starting, planning, control and closing. b. concept, definition, development, handover and closure. c. initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations. d. concept, definition, implementation and operations.
Last Answer : b. concept, definition, development, handover and closure.
Description : Which of the following is not a part of energy audit as per the Energy Conservation Act, 2001? a) monitoring and analysis of energy use b) verification of energy use c) submission of technical report with recommendations d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by review
Last Answer : d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by review
Description : The first phase of IWM as per Sheley a). Integrated use of different methods b). Planning and implementation c). Inventorization d). Monitoring and evaluation
Last Answer : c). Inventorization
Description : What consists of the identification of risks or threats, the implementation of security measures, and the monitoring of those measures for effectiveness? a. Risk management b. Risk assessment c. Security d. None of the above
Last Answer : a. Risk management
Description : What is the best example of the implementation and evaluation steps of the decision making process?
Last Answer : Need answer
Description : ------------ is a condition in which the decision maker chooses a course of action without complete knowledge of the consequences that will follow implementation. (a) Risk ; (b) Uncertainty ; (c) Ambiguity ; (d) Accuracy
Last Answer : (b) Uncertainty ;
Description : How many commanders were there in Sector 3 of the War of Independence ?
Last Answer : There were 2 commanders in Sector 3 of the War of Independence.