If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

If a CSD overheat warning is shown:
a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself
b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator
c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the temperature has
reduced
d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight
by

1 Answer

Answer :

d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight
by

Related questions

If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Description : If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The ... temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Last Answer : d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure? a. Take-off is not possible under these conditions b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind c. Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an  inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the  ... throttle during the passage through the inversion  d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind

If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the ICAO flight plan, she must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a specified time of her planned ETA at destination. The time is:

Description : If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the ICAO flight plan, she must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a specified time of her planned ETA at destination. The time is:

Last Answer : 30 mins

. If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Description : . If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Last Answer : b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission

The flight deck warning on activation of an engine fire detection system is

Description : The flight deck warning on activation of an engine fire detection system is

Last Answer : C. Warning light and warning bell

A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure to relieve the symptoms c. Continue the flight at a lower altitude and carry out exercises to relieve the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... relieve the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft

Description : The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft

Last Answer : a. Pilot in command

The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Description : The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Last Answer : c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture

The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: a. At flight level b. At height of observatory c. At a determined density altitude d. Reduced to sea level

Description : The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure:  a. At flight level  b. At height of observatory  c. At a determined density altitude  d. Reduced to sea level

Last Answer : d. Reduced to sea level

From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You  experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action?  a. Stay level  b. Descend  c. Climb  d. Reduce speed

Last Answer : b. Descend 

What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects? a. Change of flight level b. Change of course c. Increase of speed d. Decrease of speed

Description : What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?  a. Change of flight level  b. Change of course  c. Increase of speed  d. Decrease of speed

Last Answer : a. Change of flight level

What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c. Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Description : What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c. ... need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Last Answer : b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not

How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor  land?  a. He ascends to the cold air layer above  b. He continues to fly at the same altitude  c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability  d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability 

When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Description : When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Last Answer : d. Read back mode and code

f an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Description : f an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance

Which of the following is an obligation of being an ICAO contracting state? a. ICAO must be informed about all new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses b. ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention c. ICAO must approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections d. ICAO must be informed about changes to national regulations

Description : Which of the following is an obligation of being an ICAO contracting state? a. ICAO must be informed about all new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses ... of tickets on international airline connections d. ICAO must be informed about changes to national regulations

Last Answer : b. ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention

When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance c. He/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Description : When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if ... appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Last Answer : b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance

For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Description : For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Last Answer : b. 60 minutes before departure

If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot:

Description : If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot:

Last Answer : may proceed with the flight with ATC permission

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Last Answer : c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility

What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcoho l that has been consumed c. 12 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

Description : What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of ... that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

Last Answer : d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

Description : How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

Last Answer : a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA

Given: True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600 ft; local airfield gives qnh as 1035 mb; Required terrain clearance 1500 ft; temparute ISA-15C Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature?

Description : Given: True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600 ft; local airfield gives qnh as 1035 mb; Required terrain clearance 1500 ft; temparute ISA-15C Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature?

Last Answer : FL140

Given: True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Description : Given: True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Last Answer : b. FL140

On an engine throttle control system, the auxiliary control circuits are provided with devices to prevent excessive overtravel of the pilot valve by the synchronous motor. These devices are called _________________. A. overlap sensors B. limit switches C. overtravel relays D. proximity switches

Description : On an engine throttle control system, the auxiliary control circuits are provided with devices to prevent excessive overtravel of the pilot valve by the synchronous motor. These devices are called _________________. A. overlap sensors B. limit switches C. overtravel relays D. proximity switches

Last Answer : Answer: B

Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM c. A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for take-offs d. As the propeller control setting is changed by the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM

With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected ‘ON’: a. Whenever the igniters are on b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture c. Whenever the TOAT is +10°C or below and it is raining d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on

Description : With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected ‘ON’: a. Whenever the igniters are on b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture c. Whenever the TOAT is +10°C or below and it is raining d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on

Last Answer : b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture

Disorientation is more likely when pilot is

Description : Disorientation is more likely when pilot is

Last Answer : letter b. – 1,2 and 4 only are correct

A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can

Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can

Last Answer : return to flying duties after a suitable course treatment is complete

A pilot suffering disorientation should

Description : A pilot suffering disorientation should

Last Answer : line up with visual reference (e.g. Horizon)

A pilot can improve probability of detecting other aircraft by

Description : A pilot can improve probability of detecting other aircraft by

Last Answer : minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible

A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should

Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should

Last Answer : land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

The co pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the commanders decision

Description : The co pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the commanders decision

Last Answer : False

What is the absolute minimum time a pilot should stop drinking before flying

Description : What is the absolute minimum time a pilot should stop drinking before flying

Last Answer : 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

What should a pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC

Description : What should a pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC

Last Answer : instruments

What is the 1st action taken by the pilot in the event of a cabin decompression above 10,000 ft

Description : What is the 1st action taken by the pilot in the event of a cabin decompression above 10,000 ft

Last Answer : don oxygen mask and check oxygen flow

A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to alter the apparent motion of any distant object c. Maximizing the time spent looking in each sector to allow the maximum chance of detecting movement d. Maintaining as far as possible a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Description : A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to ... lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Last Answer : a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible

A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are symptoms of: a. The Occulogyral Effect b. Flicker-vertigo c. Pilot’s Vertigo d. Nystagmus

Description : A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are symptoms of: a. The Occulogyral Effect b. Flicker-vertigo c. Pilot’s Vertigo d. Nystagmus

Last Answer : c. Pilot’s Vertigo

What are the personality traits of a good pilot? a. Reliable and stable b. Stable and extraverted c. Reliable and extraverted d. Reliable, calm and extraverted

Description : What are the personality traits of a good pilot? a. Reliable and stable b. Stable and extraverted c. Reliable and extraverted d. Reliable, calm and extraverted

Last Answer : b. Stable and extraverted

What should the pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC? a. Vision b. Turning head to recover from disorientation c. Sense of balance d. Instruments

Description : What should the pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC? a. Vision b. Turning head to recover from disorientation c. Sense of balance d. Instruments

Last Answer : d. Instruments

A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a pilot only if he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a ... he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Last Answer : d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & 3 only are correct b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct

Description : Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & 3 only ... 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct

Last Answer : b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct

A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday

Description : A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday

Last Answer : c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing

The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander’s decision. a. True b. False

Description : The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander’s decision. a. True b. False

Last Answer : b. False

With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions d. Rely on the checklist for all procedures

Description : With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions d. Rely on the checklist for all procedures

Last Answer : c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions

To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during the landing the pilot of a modern airliner should:

Description : To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during the landing the pilot of a modern airliner should:

Last Answer : make a “positive” landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible.

When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

Last Answer : c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP

A type rating is applicable to: a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training

Description : A type rating is applicable to: a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training

Last Answer : c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC