A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure? a. Take-off is not possible under these conditions b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind c. Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an 

inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the 

inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure? 

a. Take-off is not possible under these conditions 

b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind 

c. Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion 

d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible
by

1 Answer

Answer :

b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind
by

Related questions

A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure? a. Take-off is not possible under these conditions b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind c. Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the ... throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind

During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line

Description : During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line

Last Answer : c. Within 15° of runway centre-line

For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Description : For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Last Answer : b. 60 minutes before departure

Where is wind shear the greatest? a. Near a strong low level inversion and in the region of a thunderstorm b. Near a valley with wind speeds greater than 35kts c. On the windward side of a mountain d. When the wind is greater than 35kts

Description : Where is wind shear the greatest? a. Near a strong low level inversion and in the region of a thunderstorm b. Near a valley with wind speeds greater than 35kts c. On the windward side of a mountain d. When the wind is greater than 35kts

Last Answer : a. Near a strong low level inversion and in the region of a thunderstorm

How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Description : How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Last Answer : a. 3.00 hrs

If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Description : If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The ... temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Last Answer : d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is:

Description : For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is:

Last Answer : the estimated off-block time

When submitting a flight plan before flight, departure time is?

Description : When submitting a flight plan before flight, departure time is?

Last Answer : at which the aircraft leaves the parking area

. If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Description : . If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Last Answer : b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission

Which of the following conditions is worst with regard to wake vortex turbulence? a. Lights winds near the surface b. Strong winds near the surface c. Marked vertical wind shear d. Marked atmospheric turbulence near the ground

Description : Which of the following conditions is worst with regard to wake vortex turbulence? a. Lights winds near the surface b. Strong winds near the surface c. Marked vertical wind shear d. Marked atmospheric turbulence near the ground

Last Answer : a. Lights winds near the surface

After flying for 16 minutes at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after:

Description : After flying for 16 minutes at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after:

Last Answer : 24 mins

After flying for 16 minutes at 100kt TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: a. 10 min 40 sec b. 20 min c. 24 min d. 16 min

Description : After flying for 16 minutes at 100kt TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: a. 10 min 40 sec b. 20 min c. 24 min d. 16 min

Last Answer : c. 24 min

If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind c. Ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway? a. GAFOR

Description : In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the  runway?  a. GAFOR  b. TAF  c. METAR  d. SIGMET

Last Answer : c. METAR

A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time and distance to PSR is: a. 1hr 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Description : A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time ... 1hr 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Last Answer : d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

The illusion that the aircraft is taxiing too fast can be caused by: a. Snow and a tailwind b. Snow and a headwind c. Rain and a headwind d. An unaccustomed high distance of the cockpit from the ground

Description : The illusion that the aircraft is taxiing too fast can be caused by: a. Snow and a tailwind b. Snow and a headwind c. Rain and a headwind d. An unaccustomed high distance of the cockpit from the ground

Last Answer : c. Rain and a headwind

What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible c. Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible

When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded? a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude b. During ground pressure testing c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs d. When changing to manual operation

Description : When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded? a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude b. During ground pressure testing c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs d. When changing to manual operation

Last Answer : a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude

When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

Last Answer : c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP

Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind d. Increasing headwind or tailwind

Description : Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind d. Increasing headwind or tailwind

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What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF

Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF

Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach

Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Last Answer : c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility

In what cloud is icing and turbulence most severe? a. Cb b. Ns c. Sc d. Ci

Description : In what cloud is icing and turbulence most severe? a. Cb b. Ns c. Sc d. Ci

Last Answer : a. Cb

Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence? a. Cirrocumulus b. Nimbostratus c. Altocumulus lenticularis d. Stratocumulus

Description : Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence? a. Cirrocumulus b. Nimbostratus c. Altocumulus lenticularis d. Stratocumulus

Last Answer : c. Altocumulus lenticularis

Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for runway 16 1500m, temperature -3°C, vertical visibility 100m b. Meteorological visibility 200ft, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500m, vertical visibility 100ft, fog with hoar frost c. Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800m, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500m d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?   00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =  a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility  improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

Last Answer : d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility  improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

The correct reply to the instruction “HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY” is:

Description : The correct reply to the instruction “HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY” is:

Last Answer : HOLDING SHORT

. The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY

Description : . The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY

Last Answer : c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20

The correct reply to the instruction “HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY” is: a. WILCO b. ROGER c. HOLDING SHORT d. UNDERSTOOD

Description : The correct reply to the instruction “HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY” is: a. WILCO b. ROGER c. HOLDING SHORT d. UNDERSTOOD

Last Answer : c. HOLDING SHORT

You see a double white cross in a signal square, what does this mean? a. Glider flying in progress b. Tow ropes and banners may be dropped c. Runway unfit for aircraft movement d. Aerodrome unfit for aircraft movement

Description : You see a double white cross in a signal square, what does this mean? a. Glider flying in progress b. Tow ropes and banners may be dropped c. Runway unfit for aircraft movement d. Aerodrome unfit for aircraft movement

Last Answer : a. Glider flying in progress

An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Last Answer : d. All of the above

The Philippine Standards on Auditing issued by AASC a. Need to be applied on all audit related. b. Require that in no circumstances would an auditor may judge it necessary to depart from a PSA, even though such a departure may result to more effective achievement of the objective of an audit. c. Apply to independent examination of financial statements of any entity when such an examination is conducted for the purpose of expressing an opinion. d. Must not apply to other related activities of auditors

Description : The Philippine Standards on Auditing issued by AASC a. Need to be applied on all audit related. b. Require that in no circumstances would an auditor may judge it necessary to depart from a PSA, ... for the purpose of expressing an opinion. d. Must not apply to other related activities of auditors

Last Answer : Apply to independent examination of financial statements of any entity when such an examination is conducted for the purpose of expressing an opinion.

The Philippine Standards on Auditing issued by AASC: a. Apply to independent examination of financial statements of any entity when such an examination is conducted for the purpose of expressing an opinion. b. Need to be applied on all audit related. c. Must not apply to other related activities of auditors. d. Require that in no circumstances would an auditor may judge it necessary to depart from a PSA, even though such a departure may result to more effective achievement of the objective of an audit

Description : The Philippine Standards on Auditing issued by AASC: a. Apply to independent examination of financial statements of any entity when such an examination is conducted for the purpose of expressing an ... though such a departure may result to more effective achievement of the objective of an audit

Last Answer : Apply to independent examination of financial statements of any entity when such an examination is conducted for the purpose of expressing an opinion

Is 1.090 greater than 1.09?

Description : Is 1.090 greater than 1.09?

Last Answer : No because they are both equal to each other

When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show: a. No change in altitude b. A slight climb c. A slight descent d. A slight descent at high airspeed only

Description : When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show: a. No change in altitude b. A slight climb c. A slight descent d. A slight descent at high airspeed only

Last Answer : b. A slight climb

Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be: a. VFR/IFR b. SMOOTH/TURBULENT c. NOT BAD/SO SO d. VMC/IMC

Description : Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be: a. VFR/IFR b. SMOOTH/TURBULENT c. NOT BAD/SO SO d. VMC/IMC

Last Answer : d. VMC/IMC

Cabin altitude in pressured flight is: a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter c. Altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions

Description : Cabin altitude in pressured flight is: a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter c. ... pressure equals ambient pressure d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions

Last Answer : a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height

If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot:

Description : If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot:

Last Answer : may proceed with the flight with ATC permission

The maximum efficiency of a scres jack having square threads and friction angle of 30 degree will be a.0.2 b.0.11 c.0.05 d.0.33 e.0.09

Description : The maximum efficiency of a scres jack having square threads and friction angle of 30 degree will be a.0.2 b.0.11 c.0.05 d.0.33 e.0.09

Last Answer : d. 0.33

When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Description : When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Last Answer : d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

An inversion is: a. A decrease of pressure with height b. A decrease of temperature with height c. An increase of temperature with height d. An increase of pressure with height

Description : An inversion is:  a. A decrease of pressure with height  b. A decrease of temperature with height  c. An increase of temperature with height  d. An increase of pressure with height

Last Answer : c. An increase of temperature with height

The first segment of the take-off flight path ends:

Description : The first segment of the take-off flight path ends:

Last Answer : at completion of gear retraction

What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Description : What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Last Answer : a. From take-off to overhead destination

What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? a. 1000m b. 1500m c. 2000m d. 3000m

Description : What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? a. 1000m b. 1500m c. 2000m d. 3000m

Last Answer : b. 1500m

During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line

Description : During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line

Last Answer : c. Within 15° of runway centre-line

At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a. 33.0 USG/Hr b. 37.9 USG/Hr c. 30.3 USG/Hr d. 21.3 USG/Hr

Description : At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a. 33.0 USG/Hr b. 37.9 USG/Hr c. 30.3 USG/Hr d. 21.3 USG/Hr

Last Answer : c. 30.3 USG/Hr

You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Last Answer : c. 30 mins

The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: a. At flight level b. At height of observatory c. At a determined density altitude d. Reduced to sea level

Description : The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure:  a. At flight level  b. At height of observatory  c. At a determined density altitude  d. Reduced to sea level

Last Answer : d. Reduced to sea level

What are the VMC limits for Class B airspace? a. 8km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface b. 8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud c. 5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud d. The same as Class D

Description : What are the VMC limits for Class B airspace? a. 8km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface b. 8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud c. 5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud d. The same as Class D

Last Answer : d. The same as Class D

Two jets take off at the same time, There is only one runway but there where no crashes and it was at the same airport. A Plane takes more than 1min to take off. How can this happen? -Riddles

Description : Two jets take off at the same time, There is only one runway but there where no crashes and it was at the same airport. A Plane takes more than 1min to take off. How can this happen? -Riddles

Last Answer : They Both Took Of At The Same Time On Different Days