Which respiratory volume is the maximum volume of air that can be inhaled after maximal expiration? a) Inspiratory reserve volume Inspiratory reserve volume is normally 3000 mL. b) Tidal volume Tidal volume is the volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath. c) Expiratory reserve volume Expiratory reserve volume is the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled forcibly after a normal exhalation. d) Residual volume Residual volume is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximum exhalation.

Which respiratory volume is the maximum volume of air that
can be inhaled after maximal expiration?
a) Inspiratory reserve volume
Inspiratory reserve volume is normally 3000 mL.
b) Tidal volume
Tidal volume is the volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each
breath.
c) Expiratory reserve volume
Expiratory reserve volume is the maximum volume of air that can be
exhaled forcibly after a normal exhalation.
d) Residual volume
Residual volume is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a
maximum exhalation.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Inspiratory reserve volume
Inspiratory reserve volume is normally 3000 mL.
by

Related questions

Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of (a) inspiratory reserve volume (b) tidal volume (c) expiratory reserve volume (d) residual volume.

Description : Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of (a) inspiratory reserve volume (b) tidal volume (c) expiratory reserve volume (d) residual volume.

Last Answer : (d) residual volume.

Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of: (1) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (2) Tidal Volume (3) Expiratory Reserve Volume (4) Residual Volume

Description : Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of: (1) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (2) Tidal Volume (3) Expiratory Reserve Volume (4) Residual Volume

Last Answer : (4) Residual Volume

Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below. Column I Column II (A) Tidal volume (i) 2500 – 3000 mL (B) Inspiratory reserve (ii) 1100 – 1200 mL volume (C) Expiratory reserve (iii) 500 – 550 mL volume (D) Residual volume (iv) 1000 – 1100 mL (A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (c) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Description : Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below. Column I Column II (A) Tidal volume (i) 2500 - 3000 mL (B) Inspiratory reserve (ii) 1100 - 1200 mL volume (C) Expiratory reserve (iii ... i) (iv) (ii) (c) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Last Answer : (b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

What is vital capacity of our lungs? (a) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume (b) Total lung capacity minus residual volume (c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume (d) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve volume

Description : What is vital capacity of our lungs? (a) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume (b) Total lung capacity minus residual volume (c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume (d) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve volume

Last Answer : (b) Total lung capacity minus residual volume

When 1500 mL air is in the lungs, it is called (a) residual volume (b) inspiratory reserve volume (c) vital capacity (d) tidal volume.

Description : When 1500 mL air is in the lungs, it is called (a) residual volume (b) inspiratory reserve volume (c) vital capacity (d) tidal volume.

Last Answer : (a) residual volume

Listed below are four respiratory capacities (i–iv) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human adult. Respiratory Respiratory capacities volumes (i) Residual volume 2500 mL (ii) Vital capacity 3500 mL (iii)Inspiratory reserve volume 1200 mL (iv) Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes? (a) (ii) 2500 mL, (iii) 4500 mL (b) (iii) 1200 mL, (iv) 2500 mL (c) (iv) 3500 mL, (i) 1200 mL (d) (i) 4500 mL, (ii) 3500 mL

Description : Listed below are four respiratory capacities (i-iv) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human adult. Respiratory Respiratory capacities volumes (i) Residual volume 2500 mL (ii) Vital capacity 3500 mL (iii)Inspiratory ... c) (iv) 3500 mL, (i) 1200 mL (d) (i) 4500 mL, (ii) 3500 mL

Last Answer : (c) (iv) 3500 mL, (i) 1200 mL

Tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL respectively. What will be his expiratory capacity if the residual volume is 1200 mL? (a) 2700 mL (b) 1500 mL (c) 1700 mL (d) 2200 mL

Description : Tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL respectively. What will be his expiratory capacity if the residual volume is 1200 mL? (a) 2700 mL (b) 1500 mL (c) 1700 mL (d) 2200 mL

Last Answer : b) 1500 mL

Arrange the following in the order of increasing volume `:` (A) Tidal volume (B ) Residual volume (C ) Inspiratory reserve volume (D ) Vital capacity

Description : Arrange the following in the order of increasing volume `:` (A) Tidal volume (B ) Residual volume (C ) Inspiratory reserve volume (D ) Vital capacity

Last Answer : Arrange the following in the order of increasing volume `:` (A) Tidal volume (B ) Residual volume (C ) Inspiratory reserve ... , D, C, B D. A, D, B, C

If expiratory reserve volume is 1100ml residual volume is 1200ml and tidal volume is 500ml , what shall be the functional residual capacity

Description : If expiratory reserve volume is 1100ml residual volume is 1200ml and tidal volume is 500ml , what shall be the functional residual capacity

Last Answer : If expiratory reserve volume is 1100ml residual volume is 1200ml and tidal volume is 500ml , what shall be the ... B. 2800 ml C. 2300 ml D. 1200ml

In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) < 30%? a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure b) II Stage II patients demonstrate FEV1 between > 30% and 80% c) I Stage I is mild COPD with FEV1 < 70%. d) O Stage O is characterized by normal spirometry

Description : In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) < 30%? a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure b) II Stage II ... I Stage I is mild COPD with FEV1 < 70%. d) O Stage O is characterized by normal spirometry

Last Answer : a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure

When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity. b) Vital capacity The nurse anticipates decreased vital capacity. c) Gas exchange and diffusing capacity The nurse anticipates decreased gas exchange and diffusing capacity resulting in impaired healing of tissues due to decreased oxygenation. d) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Description : When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue ... ) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Last Answer : a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity.

Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined “hot zone” for a period of a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were inhaled, bacteria will be killed immediately upon release from spores. Those who have symptoms of fever, cough, headache, chills, and especially evidence of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.

Description : Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined hot zone for a period of a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should ... . Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic

Last Answer : a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were ... of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.

Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. `{:(,"Column I",,"Column II"),(A.,"Tidal volume",(i),2500-3000 mL "o

Description : Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. `{:(,"Column I",,"Column II"),(A.,"Tidal volume",(i),2500-3000 mL "o

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What is the differences between inhaled air and exhaled air?

Description : What is the differences between inhaled air and exhaled air?

Last Answer : Inhaled air contains a greater volume of oxygen than carbondioxide. Exhaled air is the opposite, since after the exchange ofgases in the lungs the carbon dioxide in the blood is transferredinto the ... of carbondioxide than oxygen. Also, there is more water vapour in exhaledair than inhaled air.

Which of the following tests is used at home to assess therapy and determine if a patient with asthma should seek emergency care? (a) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) (b) Forced vital capacity (FVC) (c) Total lung capacity (TLC) (d) Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) (e) Residual volume (RV)

Description : Which of the following tests is used at home to assess therapy and determine if a patient with asthma should seek emergency care? (a) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) (b) Forced vital capacity ... ) Total lung capacity (TLC) (d) Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) (e) Residual volume (RV)

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following tests is used at home to assess therapy and determine if a patient with asthma should seek emergency care? (a) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) (b) Forced vital capacity (FVC) (c) Total lung capacity (TLC) (d) Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) (e) Residual volume (RV)

Description : Which of the following tests is used at home to assess therapy and determine if a patient with asthma should seek emergency care? (a) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) (b) Forced vital capacity ... ) Total lung capacity (TLC) (d) Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) (e) Residual volume (RV)

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following terms is used to describe inability to breathe easily except in an upright position? a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea are placed in a high Fowler’s position to facilitate breathing. b) Dyspnea Dyspnea refers to labored breathing or shortness of breath. c) Hemoptysis Hemoptysis refers to expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract. d) Hypoxemia Hypoxemia refers to low oxygen levels in the blood.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe inability to breathe easily except in an upright position? a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea are placed in a high Fowler's position to facilitate ... blood from the respiratory tract. d) Hypoxemia Hypoxemia refers to low oxygen levels in the blood.

Last Answer : a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea are placed in a high Fowler’s position to facilitate breathing.

Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest results from a displaced sternum. c) Flail chest Flail chest results when the ribs are fractured. d) Funnel chest Funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan’s syndrome or rickets.

Description : Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest Barrel chest results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest ... depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan's syndrome or rickets.

Last Answer : a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position.

Which one of the following is not correct with regard to the harmful effects of particulate matter of the size 2.5  micrometer or less? (a) It can cause respiratory problems. (b) It can directly enter into our circulatory system. (c) It can cause inflammation and damage to the lungs. (d) It can be inhaled into the lungs.

Description : Which one of the following is not correct with regard to the harmful effects of particulate matter of the size 2.5  micrometer or less? (a) It can cause respiratory problems. (b) It can directly enter ... ) It can cause inflammation and damage to the lungs. (d) It can be inhaled into the lungs.

Last Answer : (b) It can directly enter into our circulatory system.

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

Which one of the following statements is incorrect? (a) The principle of countercurrent flow facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes. (b) The residual air in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals. (c) The presence of non-respiratory air sacs, increases the efficiency of respiration in birds. (d) In insects, circulating body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues.

Description : Which one of the following statements is incorrect? (a) The principle of countercurrent flow facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes. (b) The residual air in lungs slightly decreases the ... in birds. (d) In insects, circulating body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues.

Last Answer : (b) The residual air in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals.

Given figure is showing spirogram of pulmonary volumes and capacities Which represent expiratory reserve volume `:-`

Description : Given figure is showing spirogram of pulmonary volumes and capacities Which represent expiratory reserve volume `:-`

Last Answer : Given figure is showing spirogram of pulmonary volumes and capacities Which represent expiratory reserve volume `:-` A. A B. B C. C D. D

Voluem of air remains in the lungs after normal expiration is

Description : Voluem of air remains in the lungs after normal expiration is

Last Answer : Voluem of air remains in the lungs after normal expiration is A. ERV `+` RV B. IRV `+` RV C. RV`+` IRV `+` ERV D. TV

When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient’s arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. b) must be equal in both arms. The pressures in each arm do not have to be equal in order to be considered normal. c) may vary 10 mm Hg or more between arms. Pressures that vary more than 10 mm Hg between arms indicate an abnormal finding. d) may vary, with the higher pressure found in the left arm. The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Description : When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient's arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in ... . The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Last Answer : a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures.

What waste product exhaled from the lungs?

Description : What waste product exhaled from the lungs?

Last Answer : What is the answer ?

When the nurse auscultates chest sounds that are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together, she records her finding as a) pleural friction rub. A pleural friction rub is heard secondary to inflammation and loss of lubricating pleural fluid. b) crackles. Crackles are soft, high-pitched, discontinuous popping sounds that occur during inspiration. c) sonorous wheezes. Sonorous wheezes are deep, low-pitched rumbling sounds heard primarily during expiration. d) sibilant wheezes. Sibilant wheezes are continuous, musical, high-pitched, whistle-like sounds heard during inspiration and expiration.

Description : When the nurse auscultates chest sounds that are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together, she records her finding as a) pleural friction rub. A ... wheezes are continuous, musical, high-pitched, whistle-like sounds heard during inspiration and expiration.

Last Answer : a) pleural friction rub. A pleural friction rub is heard secondary to inflammation and loss of lubricating pleural fluid.

In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient’s residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions (morning and evening)? a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

Description : In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient's residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions ... urine that is greater than 100 cc indicates that the suprapubic catheter cannot be discontinued.

Last Answer : a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

Description : When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in ... residual exceeds 100 cc, the tube feeding should be withheld at that time, but not indefinitely.

Last Answer : a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts. b) Requires a physician’s order. Teaching, as a function of nursing, is included in all state nurse practice acts. c) Must be approved by the physician. Health education is a primary responsibility of the nursing profession. d) Must focus on wellness issues. Health education by the nurse focuses on promoting, maintaining, and restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Description : Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state ... restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Last Answer : a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts.

The nurse auscultates the apex beat at which of the following anatomical locations? a) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of maximum impulse, which is normally palpable in the left midclavicular line of the chest wall at the fifth intercostal space. b) Mid-sternum The right ventricle lies anteriorly, just beneath the sternum. c) 2” to the left of the lower end of the sternum Use of inches to identify the location of the apex beat is inappropriate based upon variations in human anatomy. d) 1” to the left of the xiphoid process Auscultation below and to the left of the xiphoid process will detect gastrointestinal sounds, but not the apex beat of the heart.

Description : The nurse auscultates the apex beat at which of the following anatomical locations? a) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of ... of the xiphoid process will detect gastrointestinal sounds, but not the apex beat of the heart.

Last Answer : a) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of maximum impulse, which is normally palpable in the left midclavicular line of the chest wall at the fifth intercostal space.

Volume of air inspired or expired with each normal breath is known as

Description : Volume of air inspired or expired with each normal breath is known as

Last Answer : Volume of air inspired or expired with each normal breath is known as A. Inspiratory capacity B. ... lung capacity C. Tidal volume D. Residual volume

The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced a expiration is `:-`

Description : The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced a expiration is `:-`

Last Answer : The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced a expiration is `:-` A. TV `+`ERV B. TV `=` IRV C. TV `+` ERV `+` IRV D. ERV `+` RV

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning CO2 transfer in the lung? a. Carbon dioxide excretion is a direct function of alveolar ventilation b. Normally end tidal CO2 should be identical to PaCO2 c. The gradient between end tidal and arterial CO2 can be an indirect measure of nonperfused alveoli d. Positive pressure ventilation under normal airway pressures creates a significant end tidal PaCO2 gradient

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning CO2 transfer in the lung? a. Carbon dioxide excretion is a direct function of alveolar ventilation b. Normally end tidal ... d. Positive pressure ventilation under normal airway pressures creates a significant end tidal PaCO2 gradient

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c The amount of carbon dioxide excretion is directly related to alveolar ventilation. While oxygenation is a function of matching blood flow to alveoli, carbon dioxide excretion is ... high (over 30 cm H2O) and the compression volume is a significant component of each exhaled breath

If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

In a patient of bronchial asthma, inhaled salbutamol produces the following effect(s). (a) Inhibits antigen-antibody reaction in the lungs (b) Causes bronchodilatation (c) Reduces bronchial hyperreactivity (d) Both (b) and (c)

Description : In a patient of bronchial asthma, inhaled salbutamol produces the following effect(s). (a) Inhibits antigen-antibody reaction in the lungs (b) Causes bronchodilatation (c) Reduces bronchial hyperreactivity (d) Both (b) and (c)

Last Answer : Ans: B

In a patient of bronchial asthma, inhaled salbutamol produces the following effect(s): A. Inhibits antigen-antibody reaction in the lungs B. Causes bronchodilatation C. Reduces bronchial hyperreactivity D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : In a patient of bronchial asthma, inhaled salbutamol produces the following effect(s): A. Inhibits antigen-antibody reaction in the lungs B. Causes bronchodilatation C. Reduces bronchial hyperreactivity D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : B. Causes bronchodilatation

Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

Description : Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs ... pain at the recipient site is anticipated since the wound has been protected by the graft.

Last Answer : a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

Which of the following methods is the best method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach? a) X-ray Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is most reliable. b) Observation of gastric aspirate Gastric fluid may be grassy green, brown, clear, or odorless while an aspirate from the lungs may be off-white or tan. Hence, checking aspirate is not the best method of determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach.

Description : Which of the following methods is the best method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach? a) X-ray Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is most reliable. ... for air bubbles is not a reliable method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach.

Last Answer : a) X-ray Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is most reliable.

The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. b) barrel chest. A barrel chest is seen in patients with emphysema as a result of overinflation of the lungs. c) funnel chest. A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum. d) kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Description : The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan's syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. ... kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Last Answer : a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis.

Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Last Answer : A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

The term used to describe total urine output of less than 400 mL in 24 hours is a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure.

Description : The term used to describe total urine output of less than 400 mL in 24 hours is a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure. b) anuria. Anuria is used to ... Nocturia refers to awakening at night to urinate. d) dysuria. Dysuria refers to painful or difficult urination.

Last Answer : a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure.

Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient’s fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed. b) Minimal urine output of 50 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output may be less than 50 mL/hr. c) Minimal urine output of 10 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output must exceed 10 mL/hr. d) Minimal intake of 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient's fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are ... 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Last Answer : a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed.

The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log every injection of Demerol B. Make fraction dosage like 0.5 ml as 1 ml C. Demerol inventory must be checked every endorsement by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Description : The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log ... by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Last Answer : D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects which of the following electrolyte imbalances? a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Description : When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects ... and QT intervals, broad flat T waves), disorientation, depression, and hypotension.

Last Answer : a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight. b) Simple Types of sleep apnea do not include a simple characterization. c) Mixed Mixed sleep apnea is a combination of central and obstructive apnea with one apneic episode. d) Central In central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Description : Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older ... central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Last Answer : a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight.

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.