Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled
glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD):
A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/
advanced cases
B. Instituted early they retard the progression
of COPD
C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections
D. Both 'A' and 'B
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/
advanced cases
by

Related questions

Signs and Symptoms of COPD-Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease?

Description : Signs and Symptoms of COPD-Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease?

Last Answer : COPD stands for Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease. It is the number one cause of sickness and death across the globe. COPD is a lung disease that is composed of two or more lung conditions, such as ... patients. It is vital for smokers to quit to avoid the onset of COPD or worsening of symptoms.

Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors. b) Occupational exposure While a risk factor, occupational exposure is not the most important risk factor for development of COPD. c) Air pollution Air pollution is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor. d) Genetic abnormalities A deficiency of alpha-antitrypsin is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor.

Description : Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors. b) ... is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor.

Last Answer : a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors.

Antianginal drugs afford the following benefit/benefits: A. Terminate anginal attacks B. Decrease the frequency of anginal attacks C. Retard the progression of coronary artery disease D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Antianginal drugs afford the following benefit/benefits: A. Terminate anginal attacks B. Decrease the frequency of anginal attacks C. Retard the progression of coronary artery disease D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

The following drug can relieve symptoms of CHF but does not retard disease progression or prolong survival: A. Digoxin B. Carvedilol C. Spironolactone D. Ramipril

Description : The following drug can relieve symptoms of CHF but does not retard disease progression or prolong survival: A. Digoxin B. Carvedilol C. Spironolactone D. Ramipril

Last Answer : A. Digoxin

In comparison to inhaled β 2 adrenergic agonists, the inhaled anticholinergics: A. Are more effective in bronchial asthma B. Are better suited for control of an acute attack of asthma C. Produce slower response in bronchial asthma D. Produce little benefit in chronic obstructive lung disease

Description : In comparison to inhaled β 2 adrenergic agonists, the inhaled anticholinergics: A. Are more effective in bronchial asthma B. Are better suited for control of an acute attack of asthma C. Produce slower response in bronchial asthma D. Produce little benefit in chronic obstructive lung disease

Last Answer : C. Produce slower response in bronchial asthma

Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the progression of diabetic nephropathy. C. Hypertension is associated with sodium retention in diabetes patients. D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should be used in all patients with chronic hyperglycemia, regardless of the presence of hypertension. E. Diuretics, as single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Description : Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the ... single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCDE DISCUSSION: All of the answers listed are correct. By damaging endothelial cells, hypertension worsens macrovascular disease in all patients but especially in diabetics. Hypertension ... is not indicated because the chronic state of dehydration in such patients may become worse

The following drug has been demonstrated to retard progression of left ventricular dysfunction and prolong survival of congestive heart failure patients: A. Digoxin B. Furosemide C. Enalapril D. Amrinone

Description : The following drug has been demonstrated to retard progression of left ventricular dysfunction and prolong survival of congestive heart failure patients: A. Digoxin B. Furosemide C. Enalapril D. Amrinone

Last Answer : C. Enalapril

Long term ACE inhibitor therapy may retard the progression of: A. Diabetic nephropathy B. Diabetic retinopathy C. Hypertensive nephropathy D. All of the above

Description : Long term ACE inhibitor therapy may retard the progression of: A. Diabetic nephropathy B. Diabetic retinopathy C. Hypertensive nephropathy D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Selective inhibition of thromboxane A2 synthesis by low dose aspirin therapy might retard the progression of: A. Pregnancy induced hypertension B. Steroid induced hypertension C. Renal hypertension D. Malignant hypertension

Description : Selective inhibition of thromboxane A2 synthesis by low dose aspirin therapy might retard the progression of: A. Pregnancy induced hypertension B. Steroid induced hypertension C. Renal hypertension D. Malignant hypertension

Last Answer : A. Pregnancy induced hypertension

Glyceryl trinitrate is used in CHF for: A. Routine treatment of mild to moderate chronic heart failure B. Rapid symptom relief in acute left ventricular failure C. Arresting disease progression D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Description : Glyceryl trinitrate is used in CHF for: A. Routine treatment of mild to moderate chronic heart failure B. Rapid symptom relief in acute left ventricular failure C. Arresting disease progression D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B

Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ACE inhibitors ± digitalis/ diuretic C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ... dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Last Answer : C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy

The following is true of selegiline: A. It does not exert antiparkinsonian action unless combined with levodopa B. It overcomes the ‘on-off ’ effect in levodopa treated advanced parkinsonian patients C. It retards the progression of Parkinson's disease D. At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Description : The following is true of selegiline: A. It does not exert antiparkinsonian action unless combined with levodopa B. It overcomes the on-off ' effect in levodopa treated advanced parkinsonian ... D. At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Last Answer : . At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

How dangerous is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

Description : How dangerous is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

Last Answer : Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or COPD can be extremely serious if left undiagnosed or if not properly treated. If you have some of the symptoms of COPD you should certainly consult your doctor.

Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is started C. It is used as an alternative to corticosteroids D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is ... D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Last Answer : D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in severe heart failure over and above that afforded by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Description : The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in ... by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Last Answer : D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

The following category of drugs is not indicated in early/mild cases of Parkinson's disease: A. Central anticholinergic B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT inhibitor D. Nonergoline dopaminergic agonist

Description : The following category of drugs is not indicated in early/mild cases of Parkinson's disease: A. Central anticholinergic B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT inhibitor D. Nonergoline dopaminergic agonist

Last Answer : C. COMT inhibitor

Antimicrobial prophylaxis is regularly warranted in the following: A. Chronic obstructive lung disease patients B. Neonates delivered by forceps C. Anastomotic intestinal surgery D. All of the above

Description : Antimicrobial prophylaxis is regularly warranted in the following: A. Chronic obstructive lung disease patients B. Neonates delivered by forceps C. Anastomotic intestinal surgery D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Anastomotic intestinal surgery

Antianginal drugs afford the following benefit/benefits (a) Terminate anginal attacks (b) Decrease the frequency of anginal attacks (c) Retard the progression of coronary artery disease (d) Both (a) and (b)

Description : Antianginal drugs afford the following benefit/benefits (a) Terminate anginal attacks (b) Decrease the frequency of anginal attacks (c) Retard the progression of coronary artery disease (d) Both (a) and (b)

Last Answer : Ans: D

Systemic corticosteroids are indicated in the following conditions except: A. Mild episodic asthma B. Severe chronic asthma C. Status asthmaticus D. To prevent neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

Description : Systemic corticosteroids are indicated in the following conditions except: A. Mild episodic asthma B. Severe chronic asthma C. Status asthmaticus D. To prevent neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

Last Answer : A. Mild episodic asthma

Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria C. It is highly effective in acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Description : Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills ... acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Last Answer : B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria

Inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate should be used only in: A. Acute attack of asthma B. Moderate to severe chronic asthma C. Status asthmaticus D. Asthma not responding to systemic corti- costeroids

Description : Inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate should be used only in: A. Acute attack of asthma B. Moderate to severe chronic asthma C. Status asthmaticus D. Asthma not responding to systemic corti- costeroids

Last Answer : B. Moderate to severe chronic asthma

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

A patient of chronic bronchial asthma maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg daily and inhaled salbutamol as required develops chest infection. Which of the following measures is recommended: A. Stop prednisolone B. Reduce prednisolone dose to 5 mg/day C. No change/increase in prednisolone dose D. Substitute prednisolone with inhaled budesonid

Description : A patient of chronic bronchial asthma maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg daily and inhaled salbutamol as required develops chest infection. Which of the following measures is recommended: A. ... mg/day C. No change/increase in prednisolone dose D. Substitute prednisolone with inhaled budesonid

Last Answer : C. No change/increase in prednisolone dose

6 A patient of chronic bronchial asthma was maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg/day for 3 months. It was decided to switch him over to inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate 200 μg 4 times a day. What should be done to the oral prednisolone medication after starting inhaled beclomethasone: A. It should be stopped immediately B. Its dose should be tapered from the next day C. It should be given at the same dose for one week and then tapered D. Its dose should be doubled for one week and then tapered (p. 2

Description : 6 A patient of chronic bronchial asthma was maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg/day for 3 months. It was decided to switch him over to inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate 200 μg 4 times a day. What should ... week and then tapered D. Its dose should be doubled for one week and then tapered (p. 2

Last Answer : C. It should be given at the same dose for one week and then tapered

Vitamin K is indicated for the treatment of bleeding occurring in patients: A. Being treated with heparin B. Being treated with streptokinase C. Of obstructive jaundice D. Of peptic ulcer

Description : Vitamin K is indicated for the treatment of bleeding occurring in patients: A. Being treated with heparin B. Being treated with streptokinase C. Of obstructive jaundice D. Of peptic ulcer

Last Answer : C. Of obstructive jaundice

Cloxacillin is indicated in infections caused by the following organism(s): A. Staphylococci B. Streptococci C. Gonococci D. All of the above

Description : Cloxacillin is indicated in infections caused by the following organism(s): A. Staphylococci B. Streptococci C. Gonococci D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Staphylococc

What is true about use of amphotericin B in kala azar: A. It is currently the drug of choice B. It is more effective than ketoconazole C. It is indicated only in cases not responding to sodium stibogluconate D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : What is true about use of amphotericin B in kala azar: A. It is currently the drug of choice B. It is more effective than ketoconazole C. It is indicated only in cases not responding to sodium stibogluconate D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given in the initial intensive phase B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5 months C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'

ystemic corticosteroid therapy is not used routinely and is reserved only for severe cases of: A. Exfoliative dermatitis B. Posterior uveitis C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Hodgkin’s disease

Description : ystemic corticosteroid therapy is not used routinely and is reserved only for severe cases of: A. Exfoliative dermatitis B. Posterior uveitis C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Hodgkin’s disease

Last Answer : C. Acute rheumatic feve

Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first choice antibiotic for any specific infection C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Description : Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first ... of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Last Answer : C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera

Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment of migraine attacks C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

Description : Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment ... resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

Last Answer : C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases

Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc

Description : Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

The following is true of rivastigmine except: A. It is a relatively selective inhibitor of G1 isoform of acetylcholinesterase B. It has been found to retard disease progression in Alzheimer's disease C. It affords measurable improvement in Alzheimer's disease symptom score D. It enhances cerebral cholinergic transmission with only mild peripheral effect

Description : The following is true of rivastigmine except: A. It is a relatively selective inhibitor of G1 isoform of acetylcholinesterase B. It has been found to retard disease progression in ... 's disease symptom score D. It enhances cerebral cholinergic transmission with only mild peripheral effect

Last Answer : B. It has been found to retard disease progression in Alzheimer's disease

Tetracycline is indicated in the following form(s) of amoebic infection: A. Acute amoebic dysentery B. Chronic intestinal amoebiasis C. Amoebic liver abscess D. All of the above

Description : Tetracycline is indicated in the following form(s) of amoebic infection: A. Acute amoebic dysentery B. Chronic intestinal amoebiasis C. Amoebic liver abscess D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Chronic intestinal amoebiasis

Choose the correct statement about the use of propranolol in anxiety: A. Being nonsedative, it is the drug of choice in chronic anxiety states B. It suppresses the psychological component of anxiety C. It suppresses the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about the use of propranolol in anxiety: A. Being nonsedative, it is the drug of choice in chronic anxiety states B. It suppresses the psychological component of anxiety ... the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations D. Both B' and C' are correct

Last Answer : C. It suppresses the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations

Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Description : Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Last Answer : B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis

The following is true of β-adrenergic blocker therapy in CHF: A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored B. They are indicated only in severe (NYHA class IV) heart failure C. They are to be used only at low doses D. All of the above

Description : The following is true of β-adrenergic blocker therapy in CHF: A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored B. They are indicated only in severe (NYHA class IV) heart failure C. They are to be used only at low doses D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored

Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Select the macrolide antibiotic that can be given once daily for 3 days for empirical treatment of ear-nosethroat, respiratory and genital infections: A. Erythromycin B. Azithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Clarithromycin

Description : Select the macrolide antibiotic that can be given once daily for 3 days for empirical treatment of ear-nosethroat, respiratory and genital infections: A. Erythromycin B. Azithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Clarithromycin

Last Answer : B. Azithromycin

Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Description : Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Last Answer : A. Bronchodilatation

Raised plasma aldosterone level in CHF contributes to disease progression by exerting the following effects except: A. Fibrotic remodeling of myocardium B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia C. Increasing cardiac preload by Na+ and water retention D. Enhancing cardiotoxicity of sympathetic overactivity

Description : Raised plasma aldosterone level in CHF contributes to disease progression by exerting the following effects except: A. Fibrotic remodeling of myocardium B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia C. ... cardiac preload by Na+ and water retention D. Enhancing cardiotoxicity of sympathetic overactivity

Last Answer : B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia

ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis C. Sputum positive patients of pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis

According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide for 6 months B. Isoniazid + Thiacetazone + Rifampin for 2 months followed by isoniazid + thiacetazone for 6 months C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Description : According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide ... D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months

A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated: A. Epoetin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxine

Description : A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated: A. Epoetin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxine

Last Answer : A. Epoetin

Recombinant human erythropoietin is indicated for: A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Haemolytic anaemia C. Anaemia in patients of thalassemia D. Anaemia in chronic renal failure patients

Description : Recombinant human erythropoietin is indicated for: A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Haemolytic anaemia C. Anaemia in patients of thalassemia D. Anaemia in chronic renal failure patients

Last Answer : D. Anaemia in chronic renal failure patients

Glucocorticoids impair carbohydrate tolerance by: A. Promoting gluconeogenesis in liver B. Depressing glucose uptake into skeletal muscles C. Inhibiting insulin secretion D. Both A and B are correct

Description : Glucocorticoids impair carbohydrate tolerance by: A. Promoting gluconeogenesis in liver B. Depressing glucose uptake into skeletal muscles C. Inhibiting insulin secretion D. Both A and B are correct

Last Answer : D. Both A and B are correct

A 45-year-old solicitor had an onset of severe, crushing, substernal chest pain while attending a football match. He collapsed on his way to the car. Bystander Cardiorespiratory Resuscitation was begun immediately and continued until arrival in Casualty where an endotracheal tube was inserted and ventilation was maintained on 100% oxygen. Investigations revealed: pH 7.13 PaO2 560 mmHg PaCO2 18 mmHg Bicarbonate 5.8 SaO2 98% Based on these laboratory values, which of the following statements best describes his current pathophysiology? 1) He is demonstrating a primary respiratory alkalosis 2) He probably developed a large right to left intracardiac shunt 3) His anion gap is probably normal 4) His oxyhemoglobin curve is shifted to the left 5) His pulmonary artery pressure is probably elevated

Description : A 45-year-old solicitor had an onset of severe, crushing, substernal chest pain while attending a football match. He collapsed on his way to the car. Bystander Cardiorespiratory Resuscitation ... His oxyhemoglobin curve is shifted to the left 5) His pulmonary artery pressure is probably elevated

Last Answer : Answers-5 This young patient with severe central chest pain has probably arrested due to myocardial infarction and arrhythmia. His gases reveal high PO2 following 100% O2 but severe acidosis ... no left to right shunting and high pulmonary pressures would be expected after this arrest scenario.

Emphysema is described as: a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD. b) A disease that results in a common clinical outcome of reversible airflow obstruction. Asthma is the disease described. c) The presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of two or three months in each of two consecutive years. Bronchitis is the disease described. d) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi Bronchiectasis is the condition described.

Description : Emphysema is described as: a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD. b) A disease that results in ... disease described. d) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi Bronchiectasis is the condition described.

Last Answer : a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD.

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus b. Viral infections occur at equal frequency anytime during the post-transplantation period c. CMV infection in the post-transplant patient is most likely a pulmonary process d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus ... HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, Solid organ transplant patients are prone to develop viral infection by virtue of exogenous immunosuppression. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are those ... transplant patient or as painful herpes zoster in patients who have previously developed chicken pox