When the nurse observes an ECG tracing on a cardiac monitor with a pattern in lead II and observes a bizarre, abnormal shape to the QRS complex, the nurse has likely observed which of the following ventricular dysrhythmias? Premature ventricular contraction A PVC is an impulse that starts in a ventricle before the next normal sinus impulse. a) Ventricular bigeminy Ventricular bigeminy is a rhythm in which every other complex is a PVC. b) Ventricular tachycardia Ventricular tachycardia is defined as three or more PVCs in a row, occurring at a rate exceeding 100 beats per minute. c) Ventricular fibrillation Ventricular fibrillation is a rapid but disorganized ventricular rhythm that causes ineffective quivering of the ventricles.

When the nurse observes an ECG tracing on a cardiac monitor
with a pattern in lead II and observes a bizarre, abnormal shape to
the QRS complex, the nurse has likely observed which of the
following ventricular dysrhythmias?
Premature ventricular contraction
A PVC is an impulse that starts in a ventricle before the next normal
sinus impulse.
a) Ventricular bigeminy
Ventricular bigeminy is a rhythm in which every other complex is a
PVC.
b) Ventricular tachycardia
Ventricular tachycardia is defined as three or more PVCs in a row,
occurring at a rate exceeding 100 beats per minute.
c) Ventricular fibrillation
Ventricular fibrillation is a rapid but disorganized ventricular rhythm
that causes ineffective quivering of the ventricles.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Ventricular bigeminy
Ventricular bigeminy is a rhythm in which every other complex is a
PVC.
by

Related questions

Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT). b) occur during the QRS complex. PVCs are dangerous when they occur on the T wave. c) have the same shape. PVCs are dangerous when they are multifocal (have different shapes). d) are paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Description : Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they ... paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Last Answer : a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT).

Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia. b) Sinus tachycardia Sinus tachycardia occurs when the sinus node regularly creates an impulse at a faster-than-normal rate. c) Atrial flutter Atrial flutter occurs in the atrium and creates an atrial rate between 250-400 times per minute. d) Atrial fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT ... fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

Last Answer : a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia.

Which of the following ECG waveforms characterizes conduction of an electrical impulse through the left ventricle? a) QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization b) P wave The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. c) PR interval The PR interval is a component of an ECG tracing reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the AV node. d) QT interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Description : Which of the following ECG waveforms characterizes conduction of an electrical impulse through the left ventricle? a) QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization b) P ... QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Last Answer : a) QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization

Quinidine is now used primarily for (a) Conversion of auricular fibrillation to sinus rhythm (b) Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter (c) Termination of ventricular tachycardia (d) Prevention of recurrences of atrial and ventricular extrasystoles/tachycardias

Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for (a) Conversion of auricular fibrillation to sinus rhythm (b) Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter (c) Termination of ventricular tachycardia (d) Prevention of recurrences of atrial and ventricular extrasystoles/tachycardias

Last Answer : Ans: D

Quinidine is now used primarily for: A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for: A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Last Answer : D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL ? (a) 125 beats per minute (b) 50 beats per minute (c) 75 beats per minute (d) 100 beats per minute

Description : What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL ? (a) 125 beats per minute (b) 50 beats per minute (c) 75 beats per minute (d) 100 beats per minute

Last Answer : (d) 100 beats per minute

Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low. b) T wave The T wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting repolarization of the ventricles. It may become tall or “peaked” if a patient’s serum potassium level is high. c) P wave The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. d) QT interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Description : Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient's serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may ... interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Last Answer : a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low.

Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below? (a) Complex QRS - one complete pulse (b) Peak T - initiation of total cardiac contraction (c) Peak P and peak R together - systolic and diastolic blood pressures (d) Peak P- initiation of left atrial contraction only

Description : Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below? (a) Complex QRS - one complete pulse (b) Peak T - initiation of total cardiac ... R together - systolic and diastolic blood pressures (d) Peak P- initiation of left atrial contraction only

Last Answer : (a) Complex QRS - one complete pulse

What is the usual response to digoxin in a patient of atrial fibrillation: A. Restoration of normal sinus rhythm B. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to atrial flutter C. Increase in atrial fibrillation frequency, but decrease in ventricular rate D. Decrease in atrial fibrillation frequency, but increase in ventricular rate

Description : What is the usual response to digoxin in a patient of atrial fibrillation: A. Restoration of normal sinus rhythm B. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to atrial flutter C. Increase in ... decrease in ventricular rate D. Decrease in atrial fibrillation frequency, but increase in ventricular rate

Last Answer : C. Increase in atrial fibrillation frequency, but decrease in ventricular rate

When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest. b) 30-35 seconds Applying suction for 30-35 seconds is hazardous and may result in the patient’s developing hypoxia, which can lead to dysrhythmias and, ultimately, cardiac arrest.

Description : When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general ... suction for 0-5 seconds would provide too little time for effective suctioning of secretions.

Last Answer : a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest.

When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient’s serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves). b) Hypercalcemia Hypercalcemia would likely be demonstrated by asystole. c) Hypomagnesemia Hypomagenesemia would likely be demonstrated by hypotension, lethargy, and vasodilation. d) Hyponatremia Hyponatremia would likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation

Description : When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient's serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia ... likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation

Last Answer : a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves).

Which of the following manifestations is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia? a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia. b) Hypotension Hypotension is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia. c) Elevated temperature The rise in temperature is actually a late sign that develops rapidly. d) Oliguria Scant urinary output is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia.

Description : Which of the following manifestations is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia? a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant ... develops rapidly. d) Oliguria Scant urinary output is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia.

Last Answer : a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia.

The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents (a) repolarisation of auricles (b) depolarisation of auricles (c) depolarisation of ventricles (d) repolarisation of ventricles.

Description : The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents (a) repolarisation of auricles (b) depolarisation of auricles (c) depolarisation of ventricles (d) repolarisation of ventricles.

Last Answer : (c) depolarisation of ventricles

Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : Ans: C

Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Atrial extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Atrial extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : C. Atrial fibrillation

ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Description : ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles

Which of the following terms indicates the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricle with each contraction of the heart? a) Stroke volume Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out (ejected) with each contraction of the heart (heart beat). Stroke volume times heart rate equals cardiac output.

Description : Which of the following terms indicates the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricle with each contraction of the heart? a) Stroke volume Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out ( ... d) Preload Preload is the pressure created by a volume of blood within a ventricle before contraction.

Last Answer : a) Stroke volume Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out (ejected) with each contraction of the heart (heart beat). Stroke volume times heart rate equals cardiac output.

The nurse auscultates the apex beat at which of the following anatomical locations? a) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of maximum impulse, which is normally palpable in the left midclavicular line of the chest wall at the fifth intercostal space. b) Mid-sternum The right ventricle lies anteriorly, just beneath the sternum. c) 2” to the left of the lower end of the sternum Use of inches to identify the location of the apex beat is inappropriate based upon variations in human anatomy. d) 1” to the left of the xiphoid process Auscultation below and to the left of the xiphoid process will detect gastrointestinal sounds, but not the apex beat of the heart.

Description : The nurse auscultates the apex beat at which of the following anatomical locations? a) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of ... of the xiphoid process will detect gastrointestinal sounds, but not the apex beat of the heart.

Last Answer : a) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of maximum impulse, which is normally palpable in the left midclavicular line of the chest wall at the fifth intercostal space.

Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available hematocrit or hemoglobin determination. B. Symptomatic anemia: orthostatic hypotension, severe tachycardia (greater than 120 beats per minute), evidence of myocardial ischemia, including angina. C. To increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.

Description : Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available ... increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.

Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Currently accepted guidelines for the transfusion of packed red blood cells include acute ongoing blood loss, as might occur in an injured patient, and the development of ... not be given based solely or predominantly on a numerical value such as a hematocrit of 28%

The normal serum value for potassium is a) 3.5-5.5 mEq/L. Serum potassium must be within normal limits to prevent cardiac dysrhythmias. b) 135-145 mEq/L. Normal serum sodium is 135-145 mEq/L. c) 96-106 mEq/L. Normal serum chloride is 96-106 mEq/L. d) 8.5-10.5 mg/dL. Normal total serum calcium is 8.5-10.5mg/dL.

Description : The normal serum value for potassium is a) 3.5-5.5 mEq/L. Serum potassium must be within normal limits to prevent cardiac dysrhythmias. b) 135-145 mEq/L. Normal serum sodium is 135-145 mEq/L. c) 96-106 mEq/L. ... is 96-106 mEq/L. d) 8.5-10.5 mg/dL. Normal total serum calcium is 8.5-10.5mg/dL.

Last Answer : a) 3.5-5.5 mEq/L. Serum potassium must be within normal limits to prevent cardiac dysrhythmias.

Which of the following patient behaviors, if observed by the nurse, would indicate that the cardiac patient’s level of anxiety has decreased? a) Answers questions regarding status with no problem. Generally, when anxiety begins to increase, the patient will be less likely to want to discuss prognosis.

Description : Which of the following patient behaviors, if observed by the nurse, would indicate that the cardiac patient's level of anxiety has decreased? a) Answers questions regarding status with ... in support groups. Participation in support groups indicates some degree of comfort with prognosis.

Last Answer : a) Answers questions regarding status with no problem. Generally, when anxiety begins to increase, the patient will be less likely to want to discuss prognosis.

A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ejection fraction is low. Which of the following lines of action is warranted: A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor B. Continue all medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Description : A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ... medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Last Answer : A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor

When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

Description : When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. ... the result of increased interstitial fluid and associated with disorders such as congestive heart failure.

Last Answer : a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

75. At the start of thyroid replacement post-total thyroidectomy, the nurse must monitor for side effects. Which side effects would the nurse expect to assess? 1. Hypertension 2. Tremors 3. Hirsutism 4. Insomnia 5. Tachycardia 6. Hyperglycemia

Description : 75. At the start of thyroid replacement post-total thyroidectomy, the nurse must monitor for side effects. Which side effects would the nurse expect to assess? 1. Hypertension 2. Tremors 3. Hirsutism 4. Insomnia 5. Tachycardia 6. Hyperglycemia

Last Answer : A. 3, 4, 5, and 6

Match the column - I with column - II. Column-I Column-II (A) P-wave (i) Depolarisation of ventricles (B) QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation of ventricles (C) T-wave (iii) Coronary ischaemia (D) Reduction in the size of T- wave (iv) Depolarisation of atria (v) Repolarisation of atria Select the correct option. (A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv) (b) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (c) (iv) (i) (ii) (v) (d) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)

Description : Match the column - I with column - II. Column-I Column-II (A) P-wave (i) Depolarisation of ventricles (B) QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation of ventricles (C) T-wave (iii) Coronary ischaemia (D) Reduction in the size of T- wave (iv) ... ) (i) (ii) (iii) (c) (iv) (i) (ii) (v) (d) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)

Last Answer : (b) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Why are PVCs that occur more than 6 per minute increasing in frequently multifocal or occurring in pairs more than isolated PVCs?

Description : Why are PVCs that occur more than 6 per minute increasing in frequently multifocal or occurring in pairs more than isolated PVCs?

Last Answer : Need answer

The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the (a) beginning of the systole (b) end of systole (c) contraction of both the atria (d) initiation of the ventricular contraction.

Description : The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the (a) beginning of the systole (b) end of systole (c) contraction of both the atria (d) initiation of the ventricular contraction.

Last Answer : (c) contraction of both the atria

Central venous pressure is measured in which of the following heart chambers? a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return to the heart. b) Left atrium The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circulation. c) Left ventricle The left ventricle receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium. d) Right ventricle The right ventricle is not the central collecting chamber of venous circulation.

Description : Central venous pressure is measured in which of the following heart chambers? a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return ... d) Right ventricle The right ventricle is not the central collecting chamber of venous circulation.

Last Answer : a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return to the heart.

a. The P wave represent the electrical excitation of the_____ b. The QRS complex represents the ____ of the ventricles. c. The end of T wave marks the

Description : a. The P wave represent the electrical excitation of the_____ b. The QRS complex represents the ____ of the ventricles. c. The end of T wave marks the

Last Answer : a. The P wave represent the electrical excitation of the_____ b. The QRS complex represents the ____ of ... The end of T wave marks the end of _____

a. The P wave represent the electrical excitation of the_____ b. The QRS complex represents the ____ of the ventricles. c. The end of T wave marks the

Description : a. The P wave represent the electrical excitation of the_____ b. The QRS complex represents the ____ of the ventricles. c. The end of T wave marks the

Last Answer : a. The P wave represent the electrical excitation of the_____ b. The QRS complex represents the ____ of ... The end of T wave marks the end of _____

The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is an indicator of shock. c) Warm, dry skin Skin is generally cool and moist in shock. d) Increased urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Description : The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is ... urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Last Answer : a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate.

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

When the nurse observes the patient’s urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

Description : When the nurse observes the patient's urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake ... white urine may indicate infection, pyruria, or in the female patient, the use of vaginal creams.

Last Answer : a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative lamellar keratitis occurring in the first week after surgery. Studies suggest that since no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

Description : The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, ... after surgery. d) 6 months after surgery. DLK occurs in the first week after surgery.

Last Answer : a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative ... no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient’s posturing as a) decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing.

Description : When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient's ... rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, internal rotation, and plantar flexion of the feet.

Last Answer : a) decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing.

Which of the following are not determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication? A. Myocardial infarct 4 months previously. B. Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm. per dl. hemoglobin. C. Premature atrial or ventricular contractions on electrocardiogram. D. A harsh aortic systolic murmur. E. Age over 70 years.

Description : Which of the following are not determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication? A. Myocardial infarct 4 months previously. B. Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm ... on electrocardiogram. D. A harsh aortic systolic murmur. E. Age over 70 years.

Last Answer : Answer: B DISCUSSION: Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm. per dl. hemoglobin concentration is a misleading sign. Evidence of congestive ... or ventricular contractions on the electrocardiogram are less strong determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication

if you suspect atrial flutter : Consider digoxin if not already in use because it frequently increases the conduction ratio and decreases the ventricular rate. , Avoid adrenergic and atropinic agents during sedation or anesthesia for cardioversion. Ketamine is relatively contraindicatedthe cause of premature ventricular contraction? decrease O2 supply to the muscle decrease blood supply to the muscle the heart trying to beat fast ______________________________

Description : if you suspect atrial flutter : Consider digoxin if not already in use because it frequently increases the conduction ratio and decreases the ventricular rate. , Avoid adrenergic and ... to the muscle decrease blood supply to the muscle the heart trying to beat fast ______________________________

Last Answer : decrease O2 supply to the muscle

When the nurse assesses the patient and observes blue-red and dark brown plaques and nodules, she recognizes that these manifestations are associated with a) Kaposi’s sarcoma. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a frequent comorbidity of the patient with AIDS.

Description : When the nurse assesses the patient and observes blue-red and dark brown plaques and nodules, she recognizes that these manifestations are associated with a) Kaposi's sarcoma. Kaposi's sarcoma is ... syphilis. A painless chancre or ulcerated lesion is a typical finding in the patient with syphilis.

Last Answer : a) Kaposi’s sarcoma. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a frequent comorbidity of the patient with AIDS.

When the nurse observes that the patient always has difficulty breathing when lying flat, the nurse records that the patient is demonstrating a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea prefer not to lie flat and will need to maintain their beds in a semi- to high Fowler’s position

Description : When the nurse observes that the patient always has difficulty breathing when lying flat, the nurse records that the patient is demonstrating a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea prefer not ... Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea refers to orthopnea that occurs only at night.

Last Answer : a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea prefer not to lie flat and will need to maintain their beds in a semi- to high Fowler’s position

70. The senior nurse observes that Marina occasionally does not follow agreed upon interventions. The senior nurse reports that Marina should improve in which of the following?

Description : 70. The senior nurse observes that Marina occasionally does not follow agreed upon interventions. The senior nurse reports that Marina should improve in which of the following?

Last Answer : C. Compliance to standards

When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient’s arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. b) must be equal in both arms. The pressures in each arm do not have to be equal in order to be considered normal. c) may vary 10 mm Hg or more between arms. Pressures that vary more than 10 mm Hg between arms indicate an abnormal finding. d) may vary, with the higher pressure found in the left arm. The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Description : When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient's arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in ... . The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Last Answer : a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures.

The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate

Description : The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate

Last Answer : Ans: A

68. The senior asked Marina to list nursing interventions for the nursing diagnosis “Ineffective tissue perfusion: peripheral”. From the following list, which intervention will the senior nurse consider to be contraindicated?

Description : 68. The senior asked Marina to list nursing interventions for the nursing diagnosis “Ineffective tissue perfusion: peripheral”. From the following list, which intervention will the senior nurse consider to be contraindicated?

Last Answer : D. Maintain both extremities in a dependent position

Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is heard when(a) AV node receives signal from SA node (b) AV valves open up (c) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria (d) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles.

Description : Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is heard when (a) AV node receives signal from SA node (b) AV valves open up (c) Ventricular ... blood from atria (d) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles.

Last Answer : (d) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles