Which of the following terms refers to a graft derived from one part of a patient’s body and used on another part of that same patient’s body? a) Autograft Autografts of full-thickness and pedicle flaps are commonly used for reconstructive surgery, months or years after the initial injury.

Which of the following terms refers to a graft derived from one
part of a patient’s body and used on another part of that same
patient’s body?
a) Autograft
Autografts of full-thickness and pedicle flaps are commonly used for
reconstructive surgery, months or years after the initial injury.
b) Allograft
An allograft is a graft transferred from one human (living or cadaveric)
to another human.
c) Homograft
A homograft is a graft transferred from one human (living or
cadaveric) to another human.
d) Heterograft
A heterograft is a graft obtained from an animal of a species other
than that of the recipient.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Autograft
Autografts of full-thickness and pedicle flaps are commonly used for
reconstructive surgery, months or years after the initial injury.
by

Related questions

When the valve used in valve replacement surgery is made from the patient’s own heart valve, which of the following terms is used? a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the surgeon excises the pulmonic valve and uses it for an aortic valve replacement. b) Allograft Allograft refers to replacement using human tissue and is a synonym for homograft. c) Homograft Homograft refers to replacement using human tissue and is a synonym for allograft. d) Xenograft Xenograft refers to replacement of tissue from animal tissue.

Description : When the valve used in valve replacement surgery is made from the patient's own heart valve, which of the following terms is used? a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the ... and is a synonym for allograft. d) Xenograft Xenograft refers to replacement of tissue from animal tissue.

Last Answer : a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the surgeon excises the pulmonic valve and uses it for an aortic valve replacement.

When the nurse notes that the patient’s left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) hammertoe. Hammertoes are usually pulled upward. c) pes cavus. Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Description : When the nurse notes that the patient's left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) ... the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Last Answer : a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion.

A is a graft between genetically different members of the same species. a. Xenograft b. Autograft c. Allograft d. Isograft

Description : A is a graft between genetically different members of the same species. a. Xenograft b. Autograft c. Allograft d. Isograft

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Which of the following terms refers to an injury to ligaments and other soft tissues of a joint? a) Sprain A sprain is caused by a wrenching or twisting motion.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to an injury to ligaments and other soft tissues of a joint? a) Sprain A sprain is caused by a wrenching or twisting motion. b) Dislocation Dislocation refers ... separation or dislocation of joint surfaces. d) Strain Strain refers to a muscle pull or tear.

Last Answer : a) Sprain A sprain is caused by a wrenching or twisting motion.

Which of the following terms refers to leg pain that is brought on walking and caused by arterial insufficiency? a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is leg pain that is brought on by exercise and relieved by rest. b) Dyspnea Dyspnea is the patient’s subjective statement of difficulty breathing. c) Orthopnea Orthopnea is the inability of the patient to breathe except in the upright (sitting) position. d) Thromboangitis obliterans Thomroangitis obliterans is a peripheral vascular disease also known as Burger’s disease.

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Last Answer : a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is leg pain that is brought on by exercise and relieved by rest.

Which of the following terms is used to describe inability to breathe easily except in an upright position? a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea are placed in a high Fowler’s position to facilitate breathing. b) Dyspnea Dyspnea refers to labored breathing or shortness of breath. c) Hemoptysis Hemoptysis refers to expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract. d) Hypoxemia Hypoxemia refers to low oxygen levels in the blood.

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Last Answer : a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea are placed in a high Fowler’s position to facilitate breathing.

What is the transplantation of graft between genetically identical individuals? (1) Autograft (2) Isograft (3) Allograft (4) Xenograft

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What is the transplantation of graft between genetically identical individuals ? (1) Autograft (2) Isograft (3) Allograft (4) Xenograft

Description : What is the transplantation of graft between genetically identical individuals ? (1) Autograft (2) Isograft (3) Allograft (4) Xenograft

Last Answer : Isograft

When the emergency nurse learns that the patient suffered injury from a flash flame, the nurse anticipates which depth of burn? a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a second-degree burn and is associated with scalds and flash flames.

Description : When the emergency nurse learns that the patient suffered injury from a flash flame, the nurse anticipates which depth of burn? a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a ... Injury from a flash flame is not associated with a burn that is limited to the epidermis.

Last Answer : a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a second-degree burn and is associated with scalds and flash flames.

Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

Description : Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid ... fluid requirements. d) Hypoglycemia Hypoglycemia is not associated with increased fluid requirements.

Last Answer : a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. b) atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis is an abnormal accumulation of lipid deposits and fibrous tissue within arterial walls and lumens. c) atheroma Atheromas are fibrous caps composed of smooth muscle cells that form over lipid deposits within arterial vessels. d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

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Last Answer : a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia.

An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.

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Last Answer : a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.

The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.

Description : The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent ... . The triage category of immediate refers to non-acute, non-lifethreatening injury or illness.

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Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. Metastasis is the term that refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. d) the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow. Nadir is the term that refers to the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

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Three medications referred to as the ‘ABC drugs’ are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient teaching? a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the interferons experience flu-like symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

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Last Answer : a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the ... symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b) tolerance to opioids is uncommon. Tolerance to opioids is common. c) addiction to opioids commonly develops. Addiction to opioids is rare. d) the nurse must be primarily concerned about development of addiction by the patient in pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

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Which of the following terms refers to weakness of both legs and the lower part of the trunk? a) Paraparesis Paraparesis is a frequent manifestation of degenerative neurologic disorders.

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When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient’s serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves). b) Hypercalcemia Hypercalcemia would likely be demonstrated by asystole. c) Hypomagnesemia Hypomagenesemia would likely be demonstrated by hypotension, lethargy, and vasodilation. d) Hyponatremia Hyponatremia would likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation

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The nurse reading the physician’s report of an elderly patient’s physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

Description : The nurse reading the physician's report of an elderly patient's physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is ... red moles. Cherry angioma is the term that is used to describe a bright red mole.

Last Answer : a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status classification a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example. b) P4 Classification P4 patients have an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. c) P1 Classification P1 refers to a normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

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Which of the following terms refers most precisely to a localized skin infection of a single hair follicle? a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas subjected to irritation, pressure friction, and excessive perspiration, such as the back of the neck, the axillae, or the buttocks.

Description : Which of the following terms refers most precisely to a localized skin infection of a single hair follicle? a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas ... Comedone. Comedones are the primary lesions of acne, caused by sebum blockage in the hair follicle.

Last Answer : a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas subjected to irritation, pressure friction, and excessive perspiration, such as the back of the neck, the axillae, or the buttocks.

Which of the following responses identifies a role of T lymphocytes? a) Transplant rejection Transplant rejection and graft-versus-host disease are cellular response roles of T cells.

Description : Which of the following responses identifies a role of T lymphocytes? a) Transplant rejection Transplant rejection and graft-versus-host disease are cellular response roles of T cells. ... ) Bacterial phagocytosis and lysis Bacterial phagocytosis and lysis are humoral response roles of Blymphocytes.

Last Answer : a) Transplant rejection Transplant rejection and graft-versus-host disease are cellular response roles of T cells.

Cytotoxic T cells a) lyse cells infected with virus. Cytotoxic T cells play a role in graft rejection.

Description : Cytotoxic T cells a) lyse cells infected with virus. Cytotoxic T cells play a role in graft rejection. b) are important in producing circulating antibodies. B cells are lymphocytes important in producing ... that decrease B-cell activity to a level at which the immune system is compatible with life.

Last Answer : a) lyse cells infected with virus. Cytotoxic T cells play a role in graft rejection.

Which of the following types of aneurysms results in bleeding into the layers of the arterial wall? a) Dissecting Dissection results from a rupture in the intimal layer, resulting in bleeding between the intimal and medial layers of the arterial wall. b) Saccular Saccular aneurysms collect blood in the weakened outpouching. c) False In a false aneurysm, the mass is actually a pulsating hematoma. d) Anastomotic An anastomotic aneurysm occurs as a result of infection at arterial suture or graft sites.

Description : Which of the following types of aneurysms results in bleeding into the layers of the arterial wall? a) Dissecting Dissection results from a rupture in the intimal layer, resulting in bleeding ... Anastomotic An anastomotic aneurysm occurs as a result of infection at arterial suture or graft sites.

Last Answer : a) Dissecting Dissection results from a rupture in the intimal layer, resulting in bleeding between the intimal and medial layers of the arterial wall.

Which of the following terms refers to a muscular, cramp-like pain in the extremities consistently reproduced with the same degree of exercise and relieved by rest? a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is a sign of peripheral arterial insufficiency. b) Aneurysm An aneurysm is a localized sac of an artery wall formed at a weak point in the vessel. c) Bruit A bruit is the sound produced by turbulent blood flow through an irregular, tortuous, stenotic, or dilated vessel. d) Ischemia Ischemia is a term used to denote deficient blood supply.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a muscular, cramp-like pain in the extremities consistently reproduced with the same degree of exercise and relieved by rest? a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent ... or dilated vessel. d) Ischemia Ischemia is a term used to denote deficient blood supply.

Last Answer : a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is a sign of peripheral arterial insufficiency.

How expensive is reconstructive earl lobe surgery?

Description : How expensive is reconstructive earl lobe surgery?

Last Answer : The average cost of reconstructive ear lobe surgery is $450-$650 per ear which includes local anesthesia and operating supplies.

Of the following terms, which is used to refer to the period of time during which mourning a loss takes place? a) Bereavement Bereavement is the period of time during which mourning a loss takes place. b) Grief Grief is the personal feelings that accompany an anticipated or actual loss c) Mourning Mourning is the individual, family, group and cultural expressions of grief and associated behaviors d) Hospice Hospice is a coordinated program of interdisciplinary care and services provided primarily in the home to terminally ill patients and their families.

Description : Of the following terms, which is used to refer to the period of time during which mourning a loss takes place? a) Bereavement Bereavement is the period of time during which mourning ... interdisciplinary care and services provided primarily in the home to terminally ill patients and their families.

Last Answer : a) Bereavement Bereavement is the period of time during which mourning a loss takes place.

Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to surgery to repair and stabilize a fracture. c) heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification refers to formation of bone in the periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

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Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.

Of the following terms, which refers to casts in the urine? a) Cylindruria Casts may be identified through microscopic examination of the urine sediment after centrifuging.

Description : Of the following terms, which refers to casts in the urine? a) Cylindruria Casts may be identified through microscopic examination of the urine sediment after centrifuging. b) Crystalluria Crystalluria ... Bacteriuria refers to a bacterial count higher than 100,000 colonies/mL in the urine.

Last Answer : a) Cylindruria Casts may be identified through microscopic examination of the urine sediment after centrifuging.

When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening. b) urgent. Urgent surgery means that the patient requires prompt attention within 24-30 hours. c) required. Required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. d) elective. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

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Last Answer : a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.

Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Which of the following methods of physical examination refers to the translation of physical force into sound? a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound. b) Palpation Palpation refers to examination by non-forceful touching. c) Auscultation Auscultation refers to the skill of listening to sounds produced within the body created by movement of air or fluid. d) Manipulation Manipulation refers to the use of the hands to determine motion of a body part.

Description : Which of the following methods of physical examination refers to the translation of physical force into sound? a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound. b) Palpation ... Manipulation refers to the use of the hands to determine motion of a body part.

Last Answer : a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound.

Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

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Last Answer : a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Which of the following terms is used to describe the opening of the urethra on the dorsum of the penis? a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis and is usually repaired through plastic surgery when the boy is very young.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe the opening of the urethra on the dorsum of the penis? a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral ... Urethritis Urethritis refers to inflammation of the urethra and is commonly associated with sexually transmitted disease.

Last Answer : a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis and is usually repaired through plastic surgery when the boy is very young.

Which of the following terms refers to a process by which an individual receives education about recognition of stress reactions and management strategies for handling stress?

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a process by which an individual receives education about recognition of stress reactions and management strategies for handling stress? a. Defusing Defusing is a ... jobs but that can also occur to anyone involved in a disaster or mass casualty incident.

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Which of the following terms refers to injuries that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery? a) Crush injuries Crush injuries are those that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to injuries that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery? a) Crush injuries Crush ... wounds. d) Intra-abdominal injuries Intra-abdominal injuries are categorized as penetrating and blunt trauma.

Last Answer : a) Crush injuries Crush injuries are those that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery.

Which of the following terms refers to a state of microorganisms being present within a host without causing host interference or interaction? a) Colonization Understanding the principle of colonization facilitates interpretation of microbiologic reports.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a state of microorganisms being present within a host without causing host interference or interaction? a) Colonization Understanding the principle of colonization ... to a particular pathogen. d) Infection Infection refers to host interaction with an organism.

Last Answer : a) Colonization Understanding the principle of colonization facilitates interpretation of microbiologic reports.

Which of the following terms most precisely refers to an infection acquired in the hospital that was not present or incubating at the time of hospital admission? a) Nosocomial infection A 1970 CDC study found that about one-third of nosocomial infections could be prevented when effective infection control programs were in place.

Description : Which of the following terms most precisely refers to an infection acquired in the hospital that was not present or incubating at the time of hospital admission? a) Nosocomial infection A 1970 CDC ... in humans has increased within the past two decades or threaten to increase in the near future.

Last Answer : a) Nosocomial infection A 1970 CDC study found that about one-third of nosocomial infections could be prevented when effective infection control programs were in place.

Which of the following terms refers to a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent? a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent? a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone ... tendon and its attachment. d) Oblique An oblique is a fracture occurring at an angle across the bone.

Last Answer : a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent.

Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the ... growth of the fragments of a fractured bone in a faulty position, forming an imperfect union.

Last Answer : a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

Which of the following terms refers to disease of a nerve root? a) Radiculopathy When the patient reports radiating pain down the leg, he is describing radiculopathy.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to disease of a nerve root? a) Radiculopathy When the patient reports radiating pain down the leg, he is describing radiculopathy. b) Involucrum ... cavity. d) Contracture Contracture refers to abnormal shortening of muscle or fibrosis of joint structures.

Last Answer : a) Radiculopathy When the patient reports radiating pain down the leg, he is describing radiculopathy.

Which of the following terms refers to moving away from midline? a) Abduction Abduction is moving away from midline. b) Adduction Adduction is moving toward midline. c) Inversion Inversion is turning inward. d) Eversion Eversion is turning outward.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to moving away from midline? a) Abduction Abduction is moving away from midline. b) Adduction Adduction is moving toward midline. c) Inversion Inversion is turning inward. d) Eversion Eversion is turning outward.

Last Answer : a) Abduction Abduction is moving away from midline.

Which of the following terms refers to muscle tension being unchanged with muscle shortening and joint motion? a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic. b) Isometric contraction Isometric contraction is characterized by increased muscle tension, unchanged muscle length, and no joint motion. c) Contracture Contracture refers to abnormal shortening of muscle, joint, or both. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to muscle tension being unchanged with muscle shortening and joint motion? a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic. b) ... , joint, or both. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

Last Answer : a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic.

Which of the following terms refers to a grating or crackling sound or sensation? a) Crepitus Crepitus may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a grating or crackling sound or sensation? a) Crepitus Crepitus may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface. b) ... to rhythmic contraction of muscle. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

Last Answer : a) Crepitus Crepitus may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface.

Which of the following terms refers to the shaft of the long bone? a) Diaphysis The diaphysis is primarily cortical bone. b) Epiphysis An epiphysis is an end of a long bone. c) Lordosis Lordosis refers to an increase in lumbar curvature of spine. d) Scoliosis Scoliosis refers to lateral curving of the spine.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the shaft of the long bone? a) Diaphysis The diaphysis is primarily cortical bone. b) Epiphysis An epiphysis is an end of a long bone. c) Lordosis ... an increase in lumbar curvature of spine. d) Scoliosis Scoliosis refers to lateral curving of the spine.

Last Answer : a) Diaphysis The diaphysis is primarily cortical bone.