Which of the following terms is used to describe the opening of the urethra on the dorsum of the penis? a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis and is usually repaired through plastic surgery when the boy is very young.

Which of the following terms is used to describe the opening of
the urethra on the dorsum of the penis?
a) Epispadias
Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is on
the dorsum of the penis and is usually repaired through plastic surgery
when the boy is very young.
b) Hypospadias
Hypospadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is
on the underside of the penis and is usually repaired through plastic
surgery when the boy is very young.
c) Urethral stricture
Urethral stricture is a condition in which a section of urethra is
narrowed.
d) Urethritis
Urethritis refers to inflammation of the urethra and is commonly
associated with sexually transmitted disease.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Epispadias
Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is on
the dorsum of the penis and is usually repaired through plastic surgery
when the boy is very young.
by

Related questions

To facilitate entry of a catheter into the male urethra, the penis should be positioned at which of the following degree angles (in relation to the body)? a) 90 degrees A right angle straightens the urethra and makes it easier to insert the catheter.

Description : To facilitate entry of a catheter into the male urethra, the penis should be positioned at which of the following degree angles (in relation to the body)? a) 90 degrees A right ... and inappropriately positioned for catheterization. d) 270 degrees A 270-degree angle is a physical impossibility.

Last Answer : a) 90 degrees A right angle straightens the urethra and makes it easier to insert the catheter.

Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia Anemia refers to decreased red cell mass. c) Leukopenia Leukopenia refers to a less-than-normal amount of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia ... of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Last Answer : a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired.

Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system. (a) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal canal → Urethra → Urethral meatus (b) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra (c) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus (d) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra

Description : Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system. (a) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal canal → Urethra → ... → Urethral meatus (d) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra

Last Answer : (c) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus

Most frequent congenital anomaly is cleft palate seen in C A. Caprines B. Equines C. Bovines D. Both A&C

Description : Most frequent congenital anomaly is cleft palate seen in C A. Caprines B. Equines C. Bovines D. Both A&C

Last Answer : Bovines

Which of the following types of incontinence refers to involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure? a) Stress Stress incontinence may occur with sneezing and coughing.

Description : Which of the following types of incontinence refers to involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure? a) Stress Stress ... the involuntary loss of urine due to involuntary urethral relaxation in the absence of normal sensations.

Last Answer : a) Stress Stress incontinence may occur with sneezing and coughing.

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

Description : The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding ... encouraged to void every 2-3 hours during the day and completely empty the bladder.

Last Answer : a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.

Description : An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease ... d) rectovaginal fistula. A rectovaginal fistula is an opening between the rectum and the vagina.

Last Answer : a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.

The patient with which of the follow characteristics is considered high risk for the development of infective endocarditis? a) The patient who has complex cyanotic congenital malformations is at high risk for the development of infective endocarditis.

Description : The patient with which of the follow characteristics is considered high risk for the development of infective endocarditis? a) The patient who has complex cyanotic congenital malformations is ... with acquired valvular dysfunction is at moderate risk for the development of infective endocarditis.

Last Answer : a) The patient who has complex cyanotic congenital malformations is at high risk for the development of infective endocarditis.

Which of the following terms is used to describe stone formation in a salivary gland, usually the submandibular gland? a) Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate. b) Parotitis Parotitis refers to inflammation of the parotid gland. c) Sialadenitis Sialadenitis refers to inflammation of the salivary glands. d) Stomatitis Stomatitis refers to inflammation of the oral mucosa.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe stone formation in a salivary gland, usually the submandibular gland? a) Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate. b ... of the salivary glands. d) Stomatitis Stomatitis refers to inflammation of the oral mucosa.

Last Answer : a) Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate.

A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation). b) anorectal abscess. An anorectal abscess is an infection in the pararectal spaces. c) anal fistula. An anal fistula is a tiny, tubular, fibrous tract that extends into the anal canal from an opening located beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Description : A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent ... beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Last Answer : a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation).

The term or disease associated with buildup of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus cavernosum causing curvature of the penis when it is erect is known as a) Peyronie’s disease. Peyronie’s disease may require surgical removal of the plaques when the disease makes sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible.

Description : The term or disease associated with buildup of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus cavernosum causing curvature of the penis when it is erect is known as a) Peyronie's disease. ... refers to an uncontrolled, persistent erection of the penis occurring from either neural or vascular causes.

Last Answer : a) Peyronie’s disease. Peyronie’s disease may require surgical removal of the plaques when the disease makes sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible.

The opening into the vagina on the perineum is termed the a) introitus. The introitus is the vaginal orifice. b) adnexa. Adnexa is a term used to describe the fallopian tubes and ovaries together. c) cervix. The cervix is the bottom (interior) part of the uterus that is located in the vagina. hymen. d) The hymen is a tissue that may cover the vaginal opening partially or completely before vaginal penetration.

Description : The opening into the vagina on the perineum is termed the a) introitus. The introitus is the vaginal orifice. b) adnexa. Adnexa is a term used to describe the fallopian tubes and ovaries ... The hymen is a tissue that may cover the vaginal opening partially or completely before vaginal penetration.

Last Answer : a) introitus. The introitus is the vaginal orifice.

Which of the following terms refers to a graft derived from one part of a patient’s body and used on another part of that same patient’s body? a) Autograft Autografts of full-thickness and pedicle flaps are commonly used for reconstructive surgery, months or years after the initial injury.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a graft derived from one part of a patient's body and used on another part of that same patient's body? a) Autograft Autografts of full-thickness and pedicle ... A heterograft is a graft obtained from an animal of a species other than that of the recipient.

Last Answer : a) Autograft Autografts of full-thickness and pedicle flaps are commonly used for reconstructive surgery, months or years after the initial injury.

When the valve used in valve replacement surgery is made from the patient’s own heart valve, which of the following terms is used? a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the surgeon excises the pulmonic valve and uses it for an aortic valve replacement. b) Allograft Allograft refers to replacement using human tissue and is a synonym for homograft. c) Homograft Homograft refers to replacement using human tissue and is a synonym for allograft. d) Xenograft Xenograft refers to replacement of tissue from animal tissue.

Description : When the valve used in valve replacement surgery is made from the patient's own heart valve, which of the following terms is used? a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the ... and is a synonym for allograft. d) Xenograft Xenograft refers to replacement of tissue from animal tissue.

Last Answer : a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the surgeon excises the pulmonic valve and uses it for an aortic valve replacement.

Urethral Bleeeding after Surgery - Should I be Concerned?

Description : Urethral Bleeeding after Surgery - Should I be Concerned?

Last Answer : I'm not a woman, so anatomically I can't relate of course. I have a personal rule of thumb, kind of to the effect that if your healthcare provider is any good, and bleeding was to be ... in and mentioned bleeding they didn't go haywire, so I'd assume some post-procedural bleeding was expected.

Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away? a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects. b) Presbycusis Presbycusis refers to age-related hearing loss. c) Cataract Cataract is the development of opacity of the lens of the eye. d) Glaucoma Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away? a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in ... lens of the eye. d) Glaucoma Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

Last Answer : a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects.

Which of the following statements describe refractive surgery? a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is considered a cosmetic procedure (to achieve clear vision without the aid of prosthetic devices). It is performed to reshape the cornea for the purpose of correction of all refractive errors.

Description : Which of the following statements describe refractive surgery? a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is ... a stable refractive error. The corneal structure must be normal and refractive error stable.

Last Answer : a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is considered a cosmetic procedure (to achieve clear vision without ... is performed to reshape the cornea for the purpose of correction of all refractive errors.

Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient’s lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular. b) The ulcer is very painful to the patient, even though superficial. Superficial venous insufficiency ulcers cause minimal pain. c) The ulcer base is pale to black. The base of a venous insufficiency ulcer shows beefy red to yellow fibrinous color. d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Description : Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient's lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ... d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Last Answer : a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular.

The nurse teaches the patient whose surgery will result in a sigmoid colostomy that the feces expelled through the colostomy will be a) solid. With a sigmoid colostomy, the feces are solid. b) semi-mushy. With a descending colostomy, the feces are semi-mushy. c) mushy. With a transverse colostomy, the feces are mushy. d) fluid. With an ascending colostomy, the feces are fluid.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient whose surgery will result in a sigmoid colostomy that the feces expelled through the colostomy will be a) solid. With a sigmoid colostomy, the feces are solid. b) semi- ... colostomy, the feces are mushy. d) fluid. With an ascending colostomy, the feces are fluid.

Last Answer : a) solid. With a sigmoid colostomy, the feces are solid.

Which of the following terms is used to describe edema of the optic nerve? a) Papilledema Papilledema is edema of the optic nerve.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe edema of the optic nerve? a) Papilledema Papilledema is edema of the optic nerve. b) Scotoma Scotoma is a defect in vision in a specific ... edema is a condition characterized by urticaria and diffuse swelling of the deeper layers of the skin.

Last Answer : a) Papilledema Papilledema is edema of the optic nerve.

Which of the following terms is used to describe rapid, jerky, involuntary, purposeless movements of the extremities? a) Chorea Choreiform movements, such as grimacing, may also be observed in the face.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe rapid, jerky, involuntary, purposeless movements of the extremities? a) Chorea Choreiform movements, such as grimacing, may also be ... movements. d) Spondylosis Spondylosis refers to degenerative arthritis of the cervical or lumbar vertebrae.

Last Answer : a) Chorea Choreiform movements, such as grimacing, may also be observed in the face.

Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and ... The pia mater is the innermost membrane of the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord.

Last Answer : a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called ... of tissue by freezing. c) Perineorrhaphy Perineorrhaphy refers to sutural repair of perineal lacerations.

Last Answer : a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and ... to the state of liver disease in which the liver continues to be able to function effectively.

Last Answer : a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia. b) Sinus tachycardia Sinus tachycardia occurs when the sinus node regularly creates an impulse at a faster-than-normal rate. c) Atrial flutter Atrial flutter occurs in the atrium and creates an atrial rate between 250-400 times per minute. d) Atrial fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT ... fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

Last Answer : a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia.

Which of the following terms is used to describe hemorrhage from the nose? a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose. b) Xerostomia Xerostomia refers to dryness of the mouth. c) Rhinorrhea Rhinorrhea refers to drainage of a large amount of fluid from the nose. d) Dysphagia Dysphagia refers to difficulties in swallowing.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe hemorrhage from the nose? a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose. b ... of a large amount of fluid from the nose. d) Dysphagia Dysphagia refers to difficulties in swallowing.

Last Answer : a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose.

Which of the following terms is used to describe inability to breathe easily except in an upright position? a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea are placed in a high Fowler’s position to facilitate breathing. b) Dyspnea Dyspnea refers to labored breathing or shortness of breath. c) Hemoptysis Hemoptysis refers to expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract. d) Hypoxemia Hypoxemia refers to low oxygen levels in the blood.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe inability to breathe easily except in an upright position? a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea are placed in a high Fowler's position to facilitate ... blood from the respiratory tract. d) Hypoxemia Hypoxemia refers to low oxygen levels in the blood.

Last Answer : a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea are placed in a high Fowler’s position to facilitate breathing.

Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting ... production. d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors decrease aqueous humor production.

Last Answer : a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.

What does skin on dorsum left wrist mean?

Description : What does skin on dorsum left wrist mean?

Last Answer : Need answer

Epispadias?

Description : Epispadias?

Last Answer : DefinitionEpispadias is a rare congenital (present from birth) defect located at the opening of the urethra.In this condition, the urethra does not develop into a full tube and the urine exits the ... exstrophy, an uncommon birth defect in which the bladder is inside out, and sticks through th

Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low. b) T wave The T wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting repolarization of the ventricles. It may become tall or “peaked” if a patient’s serum potassium level is high. c) P wave The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. d) QT interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Description : Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient's serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may ... interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Last Answer : a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low.

Which of the following terms refers to the inability to recognize objects through a particular sensory system? a) Agnosia Agnosia may be visual, auditory, or tactile.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the inability to recognize objects through a particular sensory system? a) Agnosia Agnosia may be visual, auditory, or tactile. b) Dementia Dementia refers to ... d) Aphasia Aphasia refers to loss of the ability to express oneself or to understand language.

Last Answer : a) Agnosia Agnosia may be visual, auditory, or tactile.

Of the following terms, which refers to casts in the urine? a) Cylindruria Casts may be identified through microscopic examination of the urine sediment after centrifuging.

Description : Of the following terms, which refers to casts in the urine? a) Cylindruria Casts may be identified through microscopic examination of the urine sediment after centrifuging. b) Crystalluria Crystalluria ... Bacteriuria refers to a bacterial count higher than 100,000 colonies/mL in the urine.

Last Answer : a) Cylindruria Casts may be identified through microscopic examination of the urine sediment after centrifuging.

Which of the following terms refers to a muscular, cramp-like pain in the extremities consistently reproduced with the same degree of exercise and relieved by rest? a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is a sign of peripheral arterial insufficiency. b) Aneurysm An aneurysm is a localized sac of an artery wall formed at a weak point in the vessel. c) Bruit A bruit is the sound produced by turbulent blood flow through an irregular, tortuous, stenotic, or dilated vessel. d) Ischemia Ischemia is a term used to denote deficient blood supply.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a muscular, cramp-like pain in the extremities consistently reproduced with the same degree of exercise and relieved by rest? a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent ... or dilated vessel. d) Ischemia Ischemia is a term used to denote deficient blood supply.

Last Answer : a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is a sign of peripheral arterial insufficiency.

Which of the following terms is used to refer to protrusion of abdominal organs through the surgical incision? a) Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency. b) Hernia A hernia is a weakness in the abdominal wall. c) Dehiscence Dehiscence refers to partial or complete separation of wound edges. d) Erythema Erythema refers to redness of tissue.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to refer to protrusion of abdominal organs through the surgical incision? a) Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency. b) Hernia A hernia is a weakness ... partial or complete separation of wound edges. d) Erythema Erythema refers to redness of tissue.

Last Answer : a) Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency.

Which of the following terms, according to Lazarus, refers to the process through which an event is evaluated with respect to what is at stake and what might and can be done? a) Cognitive appraisal The outcome of cognitive appraisal is identification of the situation as either stressful or non-stressful. b) Coping Coping consists of both cognitive and behavioral efforts made to manage the specific external or internal demand that taxes a person’s resources. c) Hardiness Hardiness is a personality characteristic that is composed of control, commitment, and challenge. d) Adaptation Lazarus believed adaptation was affected by emotion that subsumed stress and coping.

Description : Which of the following terms, according to Lazarus, refers to the process through which an event is evaluated with respect to what is at stake and what might and can be done? a) ... and challenge. d) Adaptation Lazarus believed adaptation was affected by emotion that subsumed stress and coping.

Last Answer : a) Cognitive appraisal The outcome of cognitive appraisal is identification of the situation as either stressful or non-stressful.

Does anyone have an opinion about having prostate surgery with a young surgeon using a DaVinci machine vs. an old school surgeon with lots of experience but known for opening the patient up from front to back?

Description : Does anyone have an opinion about having prostate surgery with a young surgeon using a DaVinci machine vs. an old school surgeon with lots of experience but known for opening the patient up from front to back?

Last Answer : I wish you luck my initial reaction is to go with the young doc

Von Willebrand’s disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand’s disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is much more common in men b. A history of spontaneous bleeding is common c. Screening laboratory tests will include a prolonged aPTT with a normal prothrombin time d. Pre-treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23–50% of normal

Description : Von Willebrand's disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand's disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is ... -treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23-50% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: c, d Von Willebrand's factor is an adhesive protein that mediates platelet adhesion to collagen. In addition, it protects and prevents the rapid removal of factor VIII ... platelet aggregation responses to ristocetin. The most reliable source of Von Willebrand's factor is cryoprecipitate

A newborn was diagnosed as having a congenital abnormality that resulted in transposition of her great arteries. While preparing the infant for surgery, the medical team needed to keep the ductus arteriosus open. They did this by infusing (a) Cortisol (b) Indomethacin (c) Ketorolac (d) Misoprostol (e) Tacrolimus

Description : A newborn was diagnosed as having a congenital abnormality that resulted in transposition of her great arteries. While preparing the infant for surgery, the medical team needed to keep the ductus arteriosus ... by infusing (a) Cortisol (b) Indomethacin (c) Ketorolac (d) Misoprostol (e) Tacrolimus

Last Answer : Ans: D

The nurse teaching the patient with a cast about home care includes which of the following instructions? a) Dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems. Instruct the patient to keep the cast dry and to dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems; do not cover it with plastic or rubber.

Description : The nurse teaching the patient with a cast about home care includes which of the following instructions? a) Dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin ... A broken cast should be reported to the physician; the patient should not attempt to fix it.

Last Answer : a) Dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems. Instruct the patient to keep the cast dry and to dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems; do not cover it with plastic or rubber.

What happened to the makeshift underwear during my surgery?

Description : What happened to the makeshift underwear during my surgery?

Last Answer : They probably took it off and catheterized you once you were out. In a 7 hour surgery, you are probably going to pee, and it is easier to collect it in a nice little bag than to have to mop it up.

A continuous passive motion (CPM) device applied after knee surgery a) promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint. A CPM device applied after knee surgery promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint.

Description : A continuous passive motion (CPM) device applied after knee surgery a) promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint. A CPM device applied after knee surgery ... applied after knee surgery promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint.

Last Answer : a) promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint. A CPM device applied after knee surgery promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint.

In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

Description : In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result ... a chair. The patient should be taught to avoid bending forward when seated in a chair.

Last Answer : a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to surgery to repair and stabilize a fracture. c) heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification refers to formation of bone in the periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Description : Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to ... periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.

The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative lamellar keratitis occurring in the first week after surgery. Studies suggest that since no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

Description : The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, ... after surgery. d) 6 months after surgery. DLK occurs in the first week after surgery.

Last Answer : a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative ... no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

The first dressing change for an autografted area is performed a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent infection may indicate infection and should be reported to the surgeon immediately.

Description : The first dressing change for an autografted area is performed a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent ... is noted. Sanguineous drainage on a dressing covering an autograft is an anticipated abnormal observation postoperatively.

Last Answer : a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent infection may indicate infection and should be reported to the surgeon immediately.