Which of the following statements reflect current stem cell research? a) The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes the body’s entire supply of both red and white cells. The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes the body’s entire supply of both red and white cells. Stem cells comprise only a small portion of all types of bone marrow cells.

Which of the following statements reflect current stem cell
research?
a) The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually
replenishes the body’s entire supply of both red and white cells.
The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes
the body’s entire supply of both red and white cells. Stem cells
comprise only a small portion of all types of bone marrow cells.
b) Stem cell transplantation can restore immune system functioning.
Research conducted with mouse models has demonstrated that once
the immune system has been destroyed experimentally, it can be
completely restored with the implantation of just a few purified stem
cells.
c) Stem cell transplantion has been performed in the laboratory only.
Stem cell transplantation has been carried out in human subjects with
certain types of immune dysfunction such as severe combined
immunodeficiency (SCID).
d) Clinical trials are underway in patients with acquired immune
deficiencies only.
Clinical trails are underway in patients with a variety of disorders with
an autoimmune component including systemic lupus erythematosus,
rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, and multiple sclerosis.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually
replenishes the body’s entire supply of both red and white cells.
The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes
the body’s entire supply of both red and white cells. Stem cells
comprise only a small portion of all types of bone marrow cells.
by

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Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. Metastasis is the term that refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. d) the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow. Nadir is the term that refers to the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

Description : Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) ... the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

Last Answer : a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients.

Which of the following statements reflect current research regarding the utilization of non-pharmacological measures in the management of burn pain? a) Music therapy may provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. Researchers have found that music affects both the physiologic and psychological aspects of the pain experience. Music diverts the patient’s attention away from the painful stimulus. Music may also provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. It also allows for patient self-expression.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect current research regarding the utilization of non-pharmacological measures in the management of burn pain? a) Music therapy may provide reality orientation, distraction, ... of burn pain. Pet therapy has not proven effective in the management of burn pain.

Last Answer : a) Music therapy may provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. Researchers have found that music affects both the physiologic and psychological aspects of the pain experience ... orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. It also allows for patient self-expression.

Which of the following statements reflect the progress of bone healing? a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the progress of bone healing? a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. Serial x-rays are used to monitor the ... ossification. Adequate immobilization is essential until there is x-ray evidence of bone formation with ossification.

Last Answer : a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing.

Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.

Description : Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft ... and the external soft tissue. Fascia is fibrous tissue that covers, supports, and separates muscles.

Last Answer : a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.

Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of the patient with a white phosphorus chemical burn? a) Do not apply water to the burn. Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of the patient with a white phosphorus chemical burn? a) Do not apply water to the burn. Water should not be applied to burns from ... from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.

Last Answer : a) Do not apply water to the burn. Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.

The term that is used to refer to a primitive cell, capable of selfreplication and differentiation, is a) stem cell. Stem cells may differentiate into myeloid or lymphoid stem cells. b) band cell. A band cell is a slightly immature neutrophil. c) spherocyte. A spherocyte is a red blood cell without central pallor. d) reticulocyte. A reticulocyte is a slightly immature red blood cell.

Description : The term that is used to refer to a primitive cell, capable of selfreplication and differentiation, is a) stem cell. Stem cells may differentiate into myeloid or lymphoid stem cells. b) band ... blood cell without central pallor. d) reticulocyte. A reticulocyte is a slightly immature red blood cell.

Last Answer : a) stem cell. Stem cells may differentiate into myeloid or lymphoid stem cells.

Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on three factors: the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and ... CD4+ T cells/mm3 or plasma HIV RNA levels exceeding 55,000 copies/mL (RT-PCR assay).

Last Answer : a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of ... : the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

Which of the following statements reflect what is known about the Ebola and Marburg viruses? a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa. The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa, or who has handled animals or animal carcasses from those parts of the world.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect what is known about the Ebola and Marburg viruses? a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after ... fever, rash, and encephalitis which progress rapidly to profound hemorrhage, organ destruction, and shock.

Last Answer : a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa. The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, ... Asia or Africa, or who has handled animals or animal carcasses from those parts of the world.

Have you ever donated bone marrow? Either through harvesting or via apheresis of peripheral stem cells?

Description : Have you ever donated bone marrow? Either through harvesting or via apheresis of peripheral stem cells?

Last Answer : forgot the website for reading about the national registry. http://www.marrow.org/

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (or PMNs) A- can be attracted to the site of an infection following activation of complement B- are derived from bone marrow stem cells C- are a type of phagocyte that can engulf and kill bacteria D- .all of the above

Description : Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (or PMNs) A- can be attracted to the site of an infection following activation of complement B- are derived from bone marrow stem cells C- are a type of phagocyte that can engulf and kill bacteria D- .all of the above

Last Answer : .all of the above

Which of the following statements is false regarding B cells? A- B cells can undergo class switching and produce a different antibody type B- B one marrow stem cells migrate to the thymus and develop into B cells C- B cells synthesize antibodies and put them on their cell surface D- B cells that recognize high concentrations of antigens (self) in the absence of other signals

Description : Which of the following statements is false regarding B cells? A- B cells can undergo class switching and produce a different antibody type B- B one marrow stem cells migrate to the thymus and ... D- B cells that recognize high concentrations of antigens (self) in the absence of other signals

Last Answer : B one marrow stem cells migrate to the thymus and develop into B cells

Of the following tests, which uses a tuning fork between two positions to assess hearing? a) Rinne’s In the Rinne’s test, the examiner shifts the stem of a vibrating tuning fork between two positions to test air conduction of sound and bone conduction of sound.

Description : Of the following tests, which uses a tuning fork between two positions to assess hearing? a) Rinne's In the Rinne's test, the examiner shifts the stem of a vibrating tuning fork between two positions ... 's auricle. d) Weber's The Weber's test uses bone conduction to test lateralization of sound.

Last Answer : a) Rinne’s In the Rinne’s test, the examiner shifts the stem of a vibrating tuning fork between two positions to test air conduction of sound and bone conduction of sound.

Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of pulmonary anthrax (B. anthracis)? a) Prophylaxis with fluoroquinone is suggested after exposure. Treatment is with ciprofloxacin or doxycycline.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of pulmonary anthrax (B. anthracis)? a) Prophylaxis with fluoroquinone is suggested after exposure. Treatment is with ciprofloxacin or ... effects include respiratory failure, shock, and death within 24-36 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) Prophylaxis with fluoroquinone is suggested after exposure. Treatment is with ciprofloxacin or doxycycline.

Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome? a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for this syndrome and therefore nursing plays a pivotal role in the team approach to assisting patients and families in dealing with the symptoms of progressive loss of muscle strength and significant fatigue. Nursing interventions are aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome? a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, ... and cold are most appropriate because these patients tend to have strong reactions to medications.

Last Answer : a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for ... loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

Which of the following statements reflect nursing management of the patient with expressive aphasia? a) Encourage the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet. Nursing management of the patient with expressive aphasia includes encouraging the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect nursing management of the patient with expressive aphasia? a) Encourage the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet. Nursing management of the patient with ... such as memory loss, includes frequently reorienting the patient to time, place, and situation.

Last Answer : a) Encourage the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet. Nursing management of the patient with expressive aphasia includes encouraging the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet.

Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions in the care of the patient with osteoarthritis? a) Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity. Weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity such as walking, with special attention to quadriceps strengthening are important approaches to pain management.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions in the care of the patient with osteoarthritis? a) Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity. Weight loss and ... analgesics. Topical analgesics such as capsaicin and methylsalicylate may be used for pain management.

Last Answer : a) Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity. Weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity such as walking, with special attention to quadriceps strengthening are important approaches to pain management.

Which of the following statements reflect a goal of rehabilitation for the patient with an MI: a) To improve the quality of life Overall, cardiac rehabilitation is a complete program dedicated to extending and improving quality of life.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect a goal of rehabilitation for the patient with an MI: a) To improve the quality of life Overall, cardiac rehabilitation is a complete program dedicated ... event An immediate objective of rehabilitation of the MI patient is to prevent another cardiac event.

Last Answer : a) To improve the quality of life Overall, cardiac rehabilitation is a complete program dedicated to extending and improving quality of life.

Two basic types of pruning are heading-back and thinning-out. Which of the following is true about these pruning methods? a. Thinning cuts leave behind a good portion of the stem and many axillary buds. b. Thinning cuts are made close to a main branch or ground and few axillary buds are left. c. Heading cuts usually remove entire branches and leave no buds. d. Heading cuts remove a portion of the stem and only terminal buds are lef

Description : Two basic types of pruning are heading-back and thinning-out. Which of the following is true about these pruning methods? a. Thinning cuts leave behind a good portion of the stem and many axillary buds. ... leave no buds. d. Heading cuts remove a portion of the stem and only terminal buds are lef

Last Answer : Thinning cuts are made close to a main branch or ground and few axillary buds are left

Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia Anemia refers to decreased red cell mass. c) Leukopenia Leukopenia refers to a less-than-normal amount of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia ... of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Last Answer : a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired.

A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. Within the next few days to months, the channels close as a result of the body’s inflammatory process of healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Description : A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. ... e.g., clopidigrel [Plavix]) therapy for 2 weeks and lifetime use of aspirin).

Last Answer : a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. ... healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Red blood cells: a. measured 15 um in diameter b. do not contain mitochondria c. have a life span of 120 days in the circulation d. are released from the bone marrow as mature erythrocytes

Description : Red blood cells: a. measured 15 um in diameter b. do not contain mitochondria c. have a life span of 120 days in the circulation d. are released from the bone marrow as mature erythrocytes

Last Answer : do not contain mitochondria

The red blood cells are produced by the (1) Liver (2) Hormones (3) Bone-marrow (4) Heart

Description : The red blood cells are produced by the (1) Liver (2) Hormones (3) Bone-marrow (4) Heart

Last Answer : Bone-marrow

The parasites of malaria invade the body's ______ and bring on intense _________. a. White Blood Cells; Diarrhea b. White Blood Cells; Chills And Fever c. Red Blood Cells; Chills And Fever d. Red Blood Cells; Diarrhea

Description : The parasites of malaria invade the body's ______ and bring on intense _________. a. White Blood Cells; Diarrhea b. White Blood Cells; Chills And Fever c. Red Blood Cells; Chills And Fever d. Red Blood Cells; Diarrhea

Last Answer : c. Red Blood Cells; Chills And Fever

Which of the following terms refers to a form of white blood cell involved in immune response? a) Lymphocyte Both B and T lymphocytes respond to exposure to antigens. b) Granulocyte Granulocytes include basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils. c) Spherocyte A spherocyte is a red blood cell without central pallor, seen with hemolysis. d) Thrombocyte A thombocyte is a platelet.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a form of white blood cell involved in immune response? a) Lymphocyte Both B and T lymphocytes respond to exposure to antigens. b) Granulocyte Granulocytes ... blood cell without central pallor, seen with hemolysis. d) Thrombocyte A thombocyte is a platelet.

Last Answer : a) Lymphocyte Both B and T lymphocytes respond to exposure to antigens.

Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Description : Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Last Answer : C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects

Which of the following categories identifies the focus of community/public health nursing practice? a) Promoting and maintaining the health of populations and preventing and minimizing the progress of disease Although nursing interventions used by public health nurses might involve individuals, families, or small groups, the central focus remains promoting health and preventing disease in the entire community. b) Rehabilitation and restorative services Rehabilitation and restorative services are the focus of extended care facilities and home care nursing.

Description : Which of the following categories identifies the focus of community/public health nursing practice? a) Promoting and maintaining the health of populations and preventing and minimizing the progress of ... care delivery Hospice care delivery refers to the delivery of services to the terminally ill.

Last Answer : a) Promoting and maintaining the health of populations and preventing and minimizing the progress of disease Although nursing interventions used by public health nurses might involve individuals, ... , the central focus remains promoting health and preventing disease in the entire community.

Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Description : Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more ... Decrease in normal skin flora Cutaneous signs of HIV disease appear as immune function deteriorates.

Last Answer : a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low. b) T wave The T wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting repolarization of the ventricles. It may become tall or “peaked” if a patient’s serum potassium level is high. c) P wave The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. d) QT interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Description : Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient's serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may ... interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Last Answer : a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low.

An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its (a) Rapid onset of action (b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells (c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity (d) Very broad spectrum of activity (e) Both (a) and (b)

Description : An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its (a) Rapid onset of action (b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells (c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity (d) Very broad spectrum of activity (e) Both (a) and (b)

Last Answer : Ans: C

Reviewing the laboratory findings of the client, the nurse would found which findings are elevated? 1. White blood cell count 2. Total serum bilirubin 3. Alkaline phosphate 4. Red blood cell count 5. Cholesterol 6. Serum amylase A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 2, 3, and 4 C. 3, 5, and 6 D. 1, 2, and 6

Description : Reviewing the laboratory findings of the client, the nurse would found which findings are elevated? 1. White blood cell count 2. Total serum bilirubin 3. Alkaline phosphate 4. Red blood cell count 5. Cholesterol 6. Serum amylase A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 2, 3, and 4 C. 3, 5, and 6 D. 1, 2, and 6

Last Answer : A. 1, 2, and 3

An osteon is defined as a a) microscopic functional bone unit. The center of an osteon contains a capillary. b) bone-forming cell. An osteoblast is a bone-forming cell. c) bone resorption cell. An osteoclast is a bone resorption cell. d) mature bone cell. An osteocyte is a mature bone cell.

Description : An osteon is defined as a a) microscopic functional bone unit. The center of an osteon contains a capillary. b) bone-forming cell. An osteoblast is a bone-forming cell. c) bone resorption cell. An osteoclast is a bone resorption cell. d) mature bone cell. An osteocyte is a mature bone cell.

Last Answer : a) microscopic functional bone unit. The center of an osteon contains a capillary.

Assertion : All diploic bones of body are haemopoietic. Reason : Red bone marrow is present in the diploic bone.

Description : Assertion : All diploic bones of body are haemopoietic. Reason : Red bone marrow is present in the diploic bone.

Last Answer : Assertion : All diploic bones of body are haemopoietic. Reason : Red bone marrow is present in the ... . D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.

The old and worn-out red blood corpuscles are destroyed in (1) Liver (2) Stomach (3) Bone marrow (4) Spleen

Description : The old and worn-out red blood corpuscles are destroyed in (1) Liver (2) Stomach (3) Bone marrow (4) Spleen

Last Answer : (4) Spleen Explanation: Old, "worn out" RBCs are mostly broken down in the spleen. It is the organ that filters the blood, checks it for infection, and removes undesirable substances. RBCs are produced in the red bone marrow of bones. The average life span of erythrocytes is about 120 days.

Red blood corpuscles are formed in the------? A. Liver B. Bone marrow (Answer) C. Kidneys D. Heart

Description : Red blood corpuscles are formed in the------? A. Liver B. Bone marrow (Answer) C. Kidneys D. Heart

Last Answer : B. Bone marrow (Answer)

Erythropoiesis starts in (a) spleen (b) red bone marrow (c) kidney (d) liver

Description : Erythropoiesis starts in (a) spleen (b) red bone marrow (c) kidney (d) liver

Last Answer : (b) red bone marrow

Red blood corpuscles are formed in the A.Liver B.Bone marrow C.Kidneys D.Heart

Description : Red blood corpuscles are formed in the A.Liver B.Bone marrow C.Kidneys D.Heart

Last Answer : B.Bone marrow

When looking at the cross section of the human tibia, one finds the RED marrow in the: a) medullary cavity b) cancellous bone c) periosteum d) epiphysis

Description : When looking at the cross section of the human tibia, one finds the RED marrow in the: a) medullary cavity b) cancellous bone c) periosteum d) epiphysis

Last Answer : ANSWER: A -- medullary cavity

The old and worn-out red blood corpuscles are destroyed in (1) Liver (2) Stomach (3) Bone marrow (4) Spleen

Description : The old and worn-out red blood corpuscles are destroyed in (1) Liver (2) Stomach (3) Bone marrow (4) Spleen

Last Answer : Spleen

Blood cells are produced by Bone marrow in `:-`

Description : Blood cells are produced by Bone marrow in `:-`

Last Answer : Blood cells are produced by Bone marrow in `:-` A. All bones B. Some bones C. Most of the bones D. None

Process by which blood cells are formed in bone marrow `:-`

Description : Process by which blood cells are formed in bone marrow `:-`

Last Answer : Process by which blood cells are formed in bone marrow `:-` A. Haemopoiesis B. Haemolysis C. Thrombopoesis D. Erythroblastosis

Vitamin B12 is (A) Not stored in the body (B) Stored in bone marrow (C) Stored in liver (D) Stored in RE cells

Description : Vitamin B12 is (A) Not stored in the body (B) Stored in bone marrow (C) Stored in liver (D) Stored in RE cells

Last Answer : Answer : C

The genetic defect–adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by (a) administering adenosine deaminase activators (b) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages (c) enzyme replacement therapy (d) periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA

Description : The genetic defect-adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by (a) administering adenosine deaminase activators (b) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into ... replacement therapy (d) periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA

Last Answer : (b) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages

Cells formed in bone marrow include (a) RBCs (b) RBCs and leucocytes (c) leucocytes (d) lymphocytes

Description : Cells formed in bone marrow include (a) RBCs (b) RBCs and leucocytes (c) leucocytes (d) lymphocytes

Last Answer : b) RBCs and leucocytes

Where do B cells mature? a. Bone marrow b. Spleen c. Lymph node d. Thymus

Description : Where do B cells mature? a. Bone marrow b. Spleen c. Lymph node d. Thymus

Last Answer : a. Bone marrow

Where do T cells mature? a. Bone marrow b. Spleen c. Lymph node d. Thymus

Description : Where do T cells mature? a. Bone marrow b. Spleen c. Lymph node d. Thymus

Last Answer : d. Thymus

For examination of diatoms sample should collect from (a). Bone marrow (b). Blood (c). Tissue (d). Epithelial cells

Description : For examination of diatoms sample should collect from (a). Bone marrow (b). Blood (c). Tissue (d). Epithelial cells 

Last Answer : Ans: (a). Bone marrow

Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs. b) Labile Labile cells multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes. c) Permanent Permanent cells include neurons — the nerve cell bodies, not their axons. Destruction of a neuron causes permanent loss, but axons may regenerate. d) Epithelial Epithelial cells are a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Description : Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the ... a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Last Answer : a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs.

A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation). b) anorectal abscess. An anorectal abscess is an infection in the pararectal spaces. c) anal fistula. An anal fistula is a tiny, tubular, fibrous tract that extends into the anal canal from an opening located beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Description : A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent ... beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Last Answer : a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation).