The patient with which of the follow characteristics is considered high risk for the development of infective endocarditis? a) The patient who has complex cyanotic congenital malformations is at high risk for the development of infective endocarditis.

The patient with which of the follow characteristics is
considered high risk for the development of infective endocarditis?
a) The patient who has complex cyanotic congenital malformations is
at high risk for the development of infective endocarditis.
b) Mitral valve prolapse with valvular regurgitation
The patient with mitral valve prolapse with valvular regurgitation is at
moderate risk for the development of infective endocarditis.
c) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
The patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is at moderate risk for
the development of infective endocarditis.
d) Acquired valvular dysfunction
The patient with acquired valvular dysfunction is at moderate risk for
the development of infective endocarditis.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) The patient who has complex cyanotic congenital malformations is
at high risk for the development of infective endocarditis.
by

Related questions

Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods. b) Stenosis Mitral valve stenosis usually causes progressive fatigue. c) Regurgitation Mitral valve regurgitation, in its acute stage, usually presents as severe heart failure. d) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Description : Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more ... ) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Last Answer : a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods.

A patient needs antibiotic treatment for native valve, culture-positive infective enterococcal endocarditis. His medical history includes a severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin G during the past year. The best approach would be treatment with (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin plus genatamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Vancomycin

Description : A patient needs antibiotic treatment for native valve, culture-positive infective enterococcal endocarditis. His medical history includes a severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin G during the past year. ... /clavulanate (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin plus genatamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Vancomycin

Last Answer : Ans: E

Which of the following is an indicator of neurovascular compromise? a) Capillary refill more than 3 seconds Capillary refill more than 3 seconds is an indicator of neurovascular compromise. Other indicators include cool skin temperature, pale or cyanotic color, weakness, paralysis, paresthesia, unrelenting pain, pain on passive stretch, and absence of feeling.

Description : Which of the following is an indicator of neurovascular compromise? a) Capillary refill more than 3 seconds Capillary refill more than 3 seconds is an indicator of neurovascular compromise. Other ... d) Pain on active stretch. Pain on passive stretch is an indicator of neurovascular compromise.

Last Answer : a) Capillary refill more than 3 seconds Capillary refill more than 3 seconds is an indicator of neurovascular compromise. Other indicators include cool skin temperature, pale or cyanotic color, weakness, paralysis, paresthesia, unrelenting pain, pain on passive stretch, and absence of feeling.

Which of the following is TRUE in regard to high risk patient?** A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient D. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present

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Last Answer : B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient

Von Willebrand disease is, A. Haemophilic disease B. Bacterial Endocarditis C. Congenital cardiac disease D. Rheumatic fever Decreased PTT, bleeding time prolonged, deficiency factor VIII

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Last Answer : A. Haemophilic disease

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complexes formed when antigens bind to antibodies? a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, certain types of nephritis, and some types of bacterial endocarditis.

Description : Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complexes formed when antigens bind to antibodies? a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid ... , or delayed-type, hypersensitivity occurs 24-72 hours after exposure to an allergen.

Last Answer : a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, certain types of nephritis, and some types of bacterial endocarditis.

The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

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Last Answer : a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise ... and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly. b) pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is associated with immobility. c) dehydration. Dehydration may lead to poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

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Last Answer : a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly.

Which of the following terms is used to describe the opening of the urethra on the dorsum of the penis? a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis and is usually repaired through plastic surgery when the boy is very young.

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Last Answer : a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis and is usually repaired through plastic surgery when the boy is very young.

Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia Anemia refers to decreased red cell mass. c) Leukopenia Leukopenia refers to a less-than-normal amount of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

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Last Answer : a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired.

A patient who demonstrates an obtunded level of consciousness a) sleeps almost constantly but can be aroused and can follow simple commands. An obtunded patient stays awake only with persistent stimulation.

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Last Answer : a) sleeps almost constantly but can be aroused and can follow simple commands. An obtunded patient stays awake only with persistent stimulation.

Bladder retraining following removal of an indwelling catheter begins with instructing the patient to follow a 2-3 hour timed voiding schedule. Immediately after the removal of the indwelling catheter, the patient is placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually two to three hours. At the given time interval, the patient is instructed to void. a) encouraging the patient to void immediately. Immediate voiding is not usually encouraged. The patient is commonly placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually within two to three hours.

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A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken together with warfarin a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Description : A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken ... headaches. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Last Answer : a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Which of the following interventions is the single most important aspect for the patient at risk for anaphylaxis? a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or exerciseinduced anaphylactic reactions should always carry an emergency kit containing epinephrine for injection to prevent the onset of the reaction upon exposure.

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Last Answer : a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or exerciseinduced anaphylactic reactions should always carry an emergency kit containing epinephrine for injection to prevent the onset of the reaction upon exposure.

The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures. b) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia. c) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

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Heparin therapy is usually considered therapeutic when the patient’s activated partial thromboplasin time (aPTT) is how many times normal? a) 1.5 to 2 The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT results, which should be obtained in follow-up to any alteration of dosage. b) .5 to 1 The patient’s aPTT value would have to be greater than .5 to 1 times normal to be considered therapeutic. c) 2.5 to 3 An aPTT value that is 2.5 to 3 times normal would be too high to be considered therapeutic. d) .25 to .75 The patient’s aPTT value would have to be greater than .25 to .75 times normal to be considered therapeutic.

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Which of the following characteristics are risk factors for colorectal cancer? a) Familial polyposis Family history of colon cancer or familial polyposis is a risk factor for colorectal cancer.

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Last Answer : a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT).

Which of the following statements reflect what is known about the Ebola and Marburg viruses? a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa. The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa, or who has handled animals or animal carcasses from those parts of the world.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect what is known about the Ebola and Marburg viruses? a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after ... fever, rash, and encephalitis which progress rapidly to profound hemorrhage, organ destruction, and shock.

Last Answer : a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa. The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, ... Asia or Africa, or who has handled animals or animal carcasses from those parts of the world.

When the patient tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200, and asks what that means, the nurse informs the patient that a person with 20/200 vision a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

Description : When the patient tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200, and asks what that means, the nurse informs the patient that a person with 20/200 vision a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person ... 20/20 line, the person of normal vision will be standing at a distance of 20 feet from the chart.

Last Answer : a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Description : Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are ... be treated using pseudoephedrine and phenylpropanolamine, ingredients found in over-the-counter decongestants.

Last Answer : a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Of the following risk factors, which is considered modifiable? a) Diabetes mellitus While diabetes mellitus cannot be cured, blood sugars and symptomatology can be managed through healthy heart living. b) Gender Gender is considered a non-modifiable risk factor. c) Race Race is considered a non-modifiable risk factor. d) Increasing age Increasing age is considered a non-modifiable risk factor.

Description : Of the following risk factors, which is considered modifiable? a) Diabetes mellitus While diabetes mellitus cannot be cured, blood sugars and symptomatology can be managed through healthy heart living. ... risk factor. d) Increasing age Increasing age is considered a non-modifiable risk factor.

Last Answer : a) Diabetes mellitus While diabetes mellitus cannot be cured, blood sugars and symptomatology can be managed through healthy heart living.

In which range of body mass index (BMI) are patients considered to have increased risk for problems associated with poor nutritional status? a) Below 24 Additionally, higher mortality rates in hospitalized patients and community-dwelling elderly are associated with individuals who have low BMI. b) 25-29 Those who have a BMI of 25 to 29 are considered overweight. c) 30 to 39 Those who have BMI of 30-39 are considered obese. d) Over 40 Those who have BMI over 40 are considered extremely obese.

Description : In which range of body mass index (BMI) are patients considered to have increased risk for problems associated with poor nutritional status? a) Below 24 Additionally, higher mortality rates in hospitalized ... considered obese. d) Over 40 Those who have BMI over 40 are considered extremely obese.

Last Answer : a) Below 24 Additionally, higher mortality rates in hospitalized patients and community-dwelling elderly are associated with individuals who have low BMI.

Decrease in absorption of which of the following vitamins in the geriatric patient results in pernicious anemia? a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for absorption. b) C Lack of vitamin C may cause development of signs and symptoms of scurvy. c) D Vitamin D deficiency results in an inability to absorb calcium. d) B6 Vitamin B6 affects neuromuscular function.

Description : Decrease in absorption of which of the following vitamins in the geriatric patient results in pernicious anemia? a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for ... results in an inability to absorb calcium. d) B6 Vitamin B6 affects neuromuscular function.

Last Answer : a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for absorption.

Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b) tolerance to opioids is uncommon. Tolerance to opioids is common. c) addiction to opioids commonly develops. Addiction to opioids is rare. d) the nurse must be primarily concerned about development of addiction by the patient in pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

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Last Answer : a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. b) Stage III A stage III ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted. b) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted.

In order to help prevent the development of an external rotation deformity of the hip in a patient who must remain in bed for any period of time, the most appropriate nursing action would be to use a) a trochanter roll extending from the crest of the ilium to the midthigh. A trochanter roll, properly placed, provides resistance to the external rotation of the hip. b) pillows under the lower legs. Pillows under the legs will not prevent the hips from rotating externally. c) a hip-abductor pillow. A hip-abductor pillow is used for the patient after total hip replacement surgery. d) a footboard. A footboard will not prevent the hips from rotating externally.

Description : In order to help prevent the development of an external rotation deformity of the hip in a patient who must remain in bed for any period of time, the most appropriate nursing action would be ... hip replacement surgery. d) a footboard. A footboard will not prevent the hips from rotating externally.

Last Answer : a) a trochanter roll extending from the crest of the ilium to the midthigh. A trochanter roll, properly placed, provides resistance to the external rotation of the hip.

Development of malignant melanoma is associated with which of the following risk factors? a) Individuals with a history of severe sunburn Ultraviolet rays are strongly suspected as the etiology of malignant melanoma.

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Last Answer : a) Individuals with a history of severe sunburn Ultraviolet rays are strongly suspected as the etiology of malignant melanoma.

Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors. b) Occupational exposure While a risk factor, occupational exposure is not the most important risk factor for development of COPD. c) Air pollution Air pollution is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor. d) Genetic abnormalities A deficiency of alpha-antitrypsin is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor.

Description : Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors. b) ... is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor.

Last Answer : a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors.

In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin

Description : In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin

Last Answer : Ans: D

An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally B. Penicillin 250 mg orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment

Description : An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram ... orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment

Last Answer : A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally

Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Description : Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Last Answer : B. Patients with allergic disorders

Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

Description : Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

Last Answer : C. Herpes simplex keratitis

When the nurse notes that the patient’s left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) hammertoe. Hammertoes are usually pulled upward. c) pes cavus. Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Description : When the nurse notes that the patient's left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) ... the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Last Answer : a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion.

When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for shortcourse (e.g. 3-day) therapy? a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

Description : When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for ... to be significantly more effective than TMP-SMX in community-based patients and in nursing home residents.

Last Answer : a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

When the nurse observes that the patient always has difficulty breathing when lying flat, the nurse records that the patient is demonstrating a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea prefer not to lie flat and will need to maintain their beds in a semi- to high Fowler’s position

Description : When the nurse observes that the patient always has difficulty breathing when lying flat, the nurse records that the patient is demonstrating a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea prefer not ... Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea refers to orthopnea that occurs only at night.

Last Answer : a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea prefer not to lie flat and will need to maintain their beds in a semi- to high Fowler’s position

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He is agitated and complains of shortness of breath. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct concerning his diagnosis and management? a. Myocardial ischemia secondary to preexisting coronary artery disease is most likely the underlying cause of this problem b. Invasive hemodynamic monitoring with a Swan-Gantz catheter will demonstrate a low cardiac output, a high systemic vascular resistance, and elevated cardiac filling pressures c. The use of morphine sulphate and nitrates should be part of the initial management d. The primary pharmacologic treatment involves the use of moderate doses of inotropic ag

Description : A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He ... use of moderate doses of inotropic agents e. Afterload reduction with nitroprusside is absolutely contraindicated

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Intrinsic cardiogenic shock results from failure of the heart as an effective pump. Coronary artery disease is the most common cause of myocardial ... hemodynamic monitoring. Infusion of afterload-reducing agents can be administered in conjunction with inotropic support

Which of the follow statements provides accurate information regarding cancer of the colon and rectum? a) Cancer of the colon and rectum is the second most common type of internal cancer in the United States. Cancer of the colon and rectum is the second most common type of internal cancer in the United States.

Description : Which of the follow statements provides accurate information regarding cancer of the colon and rectum? a) Cancer of the colon and rectum is the second most common type of internal cancer in the ... colon cancer. Colon cancer occurrence is higher in people with a family history of colon cancer.

Last Answer : a) Cancer of the colon and rectum is the second most common type of internal cancer in the United States. Cancer of the colon and rectum is the second most common type of internal cancer in the United States.

70. The senior nurse observes that Marina occasionally does not follow agreed upon interventions. The senior nurse reports that Marina should improve in which of the following?

Description : 70. The senior nurse observes that Marina occasionally does not follow agreed upon interventions. The senior nurse reports that Marina should improve in which of the following?

Last Answer : C. Compliance to standards

Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low. b) T wave The T wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting repolarization of the ventricles. It may become tall or “peaked” if a patient’s serum potassium level is high. c) P wave The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. d) QT interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Description : Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient's serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may ... interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Last Answer : a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low.

Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually presents with thrombosis while on heparin or exhibits an inability to become adequately anticoagulated with heparin b. This deficiency may be either congenital or acquired c. Thrombotic episodes are related to predisposing events such as operations, childbirth, and infections d. Treatment involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Description : Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually ... involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Antithrombin III deficiency accounts for about 2% of venous thrombotic event. This deficiency has been described in patients with pulmonary embolism, mesenteric venous ... is established, fresh frozen plasma should be administered followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

The obstructive and irritative symptom complex caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy is termed a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, and a sensation that the bladder has not completely emptied.

Description : The obstructive and irritative symptom complex caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy is termed a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, ... . d) prostatectomy. Prostatectomy refers to the surgical removal of the prostate gland.

Last Answer : a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, and a sensation that the bladder has not completely emptied.

Which of the following ECG waveforms characterizes conduction of an electrical impulse through the left ventricle? a) QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization b) P wave The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. c) PR interval The PR interval is a component of an ECG tracing reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the AV node. d) QT interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Description : Which of the following ECG waveforms characterizes conduction of an electrical impulse through the left ventricle? a) QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization b) P ... QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Last Answer : a) QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization

The first step in decontamination is a. Removal of the patient’s clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. To be effective, decontamination must include a minimum of two steps. The first step is removal of the patient’s clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. The second step consists of a thorough soap and water wash and rinse.

Description : The first step in decontamination is a. Removal of the patient's clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. To be effective, decontamination must include a minimum of two steps. The ... the patient with water. The second step consists of a thorough soap and water wash and rinse.

Last Answer : a. Removal of the patient's clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. To be effective, decontamination must include a minimum of two steps. The first step is removal of the patient ... the patient with water. The second step consists of a thorough soap and water wash and rinse.