A healthy person can be diagnosed as having a infection with the multiplication of bacterial cells in the blood. a. Primary; bacteremia b. Primary; vermeil c. Primary; septicemia d. Secondary; parasitemia

A healthy person can be diagnosed as having a infection with the
multiplication of bacterial cells in the blood.
a. Primary; bacteremia
b. Primary; vermeil
c. Primary; septicemia
d. Secondary; parasitemia
by

1 Answer

Answer :

c. Primary; septicemia
by

Related questions

_____ refers to bacteria that grow and spread through the blood. a. Chronic Disease b. Septicemiac. Acute Disease d. Bacteremia

Description : _____ refers to bacteria that grow and spread through the blood. a. Chronic Disease b. Septicemia c. Acute Disease d. Bacteremia

Last Answer : b. Septicemia

The first step in infection of a host bacterial cells by a phage is A- adsorption B- absorption C- penetration D- replication

Description : The first step in infection of a host bacterial cells by a phage is A- adsorption B- absorption C- penetration D- replication

Last Answer : adsorption

Which of the following infection(s) can be diagnosed by the use of polymerase chain reaction? A- HIV-1 and HIV-2 viruses B- Hepatitis B virus C- Mycobacterium tuberculosis D- All of these

Description : Which of the following infection(s) can be diagnosed by the use of polymerase chain reaction? A- HIV-1 and HIV-2 viruses B- Hepatitis B virus C- Mycobacterium tuberculosis D- All of these

Last Answer : All of these

Acute bacterial meningitis can begin with ____ that develops into a blood infection that then invades the meninges. a. N. meningitidis b. S. pneumoniae c. H. influenzae d. A-C are correct

Description : Acute bacterial meningitis can begin with ____ that develops into a blood infection that then invades the meninges. a. N. meningitidis b. S. pneumoniae c. H. influenzae d. A-C are correct

Last Answer : d. A-C are correct

This gram-positive rod can cause meningoencephalitis, septicemia, and newborn meningitis. a. Bacillus cereus b. Listeria monocyto genes c. Clostridium peringens d. Escherichia coli

Description : This gram-positive rod can cause meningoencephalitis, septicemia, and newborn meningitis. a. Bacillus cereus b. Listeria monocyto genes c. Clostridium peringens d. Escherichia coli

Last Answer : b. Listeria monocyto genes

This gram-positive rod can cause meningoencephalitis, septicemia, and newborn meningitis. a. Bacillus cereus b. Listeria monocyto genes c. Clostridium peringens d. Escherichia coli

Description : This gram-positive rod can cause meningoencephalitis, septicemia, and newborn meningitis. a. Bacillus cereus b. Listeria monocyto genes c. Clostridium peringens d. Escherichia coli

Last Answer : b. Listeria monocyto genes

Which of the following is a cause of a secondary immunodeficiency? a. X-linked inheritance b. Deficiencies in the complement system c. Viral infection resembling self-cells d. All the above are correct

Description : Which of the following is a cause of a secondary immunodeficiency? a. X-linked inheritance b. Deficiencies in the complement system c. Viral infection resembling self-cells d. All the above are correct

Last Answer : c. Viral infection resembling self-cells

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive hemodynamic monitoring and fluid resuscitation b. Recent series have noted a decrease in the incidence of this condition c. Predisposing factors include old age, malnutrition, and immunosuppression d. Pseudomonas bacteremia is the most common cause of gram-negative sepsis e. Polymicrobial sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive ... sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Last Answer : Answer: c, e Gram-negative bacterial sepsis is a serious disease process that produces substantial morbidity and mortality in both normal and immunocompromised patients (10% to 20% and ... and most investigators agree that polymicrobial sepsis is more lethal than infection with a single organism

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

The most common cause of an invasive wound infection, such as a burn, is a. gram-positive bacterial species. b. treponema pallidum. c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. d. Escherichia coli.

Description : The most common cause of an invasive wound infection, such as a burn, is a. gram-positive bacterial species. b. treponema pallidum. c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. d. Escherichia coli.

Last Answer : c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Swimmer‘s ear is a common name for a infection of the_________ ear. a. Bacterial; Outer b. Viral; Outer c. Bacterial; Middle d. Viral; Inner

Description : Swimmer‘s ear is a common name for a infection of the_________ ear. a. Bacterial; Outer b. Viral; Outer c. Bacterial; Middle d. Viral; Inner

Last Answer : a. Bacterial; Outer

Specialized transduction is carried out by a. Virulent Phages That Have A Lytic Cycle Of Infection. b. Temperate Phages Carrying A Entire Bacterial Chromosome. c. Temperate Phages That Carry A Segment Of Host Dna. d. Virulent Phages That Swap Dna Segments.

Description : Specialized transduction is carried out by a. Virulent Phages That Have A Lytic Cycle Of Infection. b. Temperate Phages Carrying A Entire Bacterial Chromosome. c. Temperate Phages That Carry A Segment Of Host Dna. d. Virulent Phages That Swap Dna Segments.

Last Answer : c. Temperate Phages That Carry A Segment Of Host Dna.

Retroviruses are so-named because their reverse transcriptase _____. a. reverses the flow of genetic information by stimulating information to proceed from RNA to DNA. b. reverses the normal multiplication of cells from a low rate to a high rate. c. reverses the ability of viruses to associate with cells. d. reverses the action of drugs on viruses and allows them to continue multiplying in living cells.

Description : Retroviruses are so-named because their reverse transcriptase _____. a. reverses the flow of genetic information by stimulating information to proceed from RNA to DNA. b. reverses the normal ... the action of drugs on viruses and allows them to continue multiplying in living cells.

Last Answer : a. reverses the flow of genetic information by stimulating information to proceed from RNA to DNA.

Virus reproduces in living cells by A.replication B.duplication C.multiplication D.all of these

Description : Virus reproduces in living cells by A.replication B.duplication C.multiplication D.all of these

Last Answer : A.replication

Who was the first person to see bacterial cells with the microscope? a. Pasteur b. Koch c. Leeuwenhoek d. Hooke

Description : Who was the first person to see bacterial cells with the microscope? a. Pasteur b. Koch c. Leeuwenhoek d. Hooke

Last Answer : c. Leeuwenhoek

In an ELISA, the primary antibody represents a. The patient‘s serum. b. The antibody recognizing the secondary antibody.c. The enzyme-linked (labeled) antibody. d. The antibodies having been washed away.

Description : In an ELISA, the primary antibody represents a. The patient‘s serum. b. The antibody recognizing the secondary antibody. c. The enzyme-linked (labeled) antibody. d. The antibodies having been washed away.

Last Answer : b. The antibody recognizing the secondary antibody.

Mononucleosis is an infection of________ cells by the _____. a. T; cytomegalovirus b. B; Epstein-Barr virus c. Lung; cytomegalovirus d. red blood; Epstein.Barr virus

Description : Mononucleosis is an infection of________ cells by the _____. a. T; cytomegalovirus b. B; Epstein-Barr virus c. Lung; cytomegalovirus d. red blood; Epstein.Barr virus

Last Answer : d. red blood; Epstein.Barr virus

According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma). b) primary. Primary hypertension has no known underlying cause. c) essential. Essential hypertension has no known underlying cause. d) isolated systolic. Isolated systolic hypertension is demonstrated by readings in which the systolic pressure exceeds 140 mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Description : According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of ... mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Last Answer : a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma).

Which one of the following is NOT true of exotoxins? a. They are proteins. b. They are part of cell wall structure. c. They are released from live bacterial cells. d. They trigger antibody production.

Description : Which one of the following is NOT true of exotoxins? a. They are proteins. b. They are part of cell wall structure. c. They are released from live bacterial cells. d. They trigger antibody production.

Last Answer : d. They trigger antibody production.

The skin is a. Dominated By Gram-Negative Bacterial Cells. b. Free Of Bacterial Cells. c. Without A Microbiota.d. Dominated By Gram-Positive Bacterial Cells.

Description : The skin is a. Dominated By Gram-Negative Bacterial Cells. b. Free Of Bacterial Cells. c. Without A Microbiota. d. Dominated By Gram-Positive Bacterial Cells.

Last Answer : d. Dominated By Gram-Positive Bacterial Cells.

Transformed bacterial cells may display enhanced drug resistances from the acquisition of _____. a. F factors b. M factors c. R factors d. S factors

Description : Transformed bacterial cells may display enhanced drug resistances from the acquisition of _____. a. F factors b. M factors c. R factors d. S factors

Last Answer : c. R factors

Which of the following is NOT a type of horizontal gene transfer between bacterial cells? a. transformation b. conjugation c. transduction d. translation

Description : Which of the following is NOT a type of horizontal gene transfer between bacterial cells? a. transformation b. conjugation c. transduction d. translation

Last Answer : d. translation

Competence refers to a bacterial cell's ability to a. Take Up DNA Fragments From The Environment. b. Be Infected By A Transducing Phage. c. Produce A Protein Product From An Engineered Gene. d. Undergo Conjugation With An F+ Cell.

Description : Competence refers to a bacterial cell's ability to a. Take Up DNA Fragments From The Environment. b. Be Infected By A Transducing Phage. c. Produce A Protein Product From An Engineered Gene. d. Undergo Conjugation With An F+ Cell.

Last Answer : a. Take Up DNA Fragments From The Environment.

During the process of lysogeny _____. a. Phage DNA Integrates Into The Bacterial Chromosome.b. A Bacterium Acquires DNA From The External Environment. c. Competent Cells Receive Plasmids. d. New Phage Particles Are Assembled In The Host Bacterium.

Description : During the process of lysogeny _____. a. Phage DNA Integrates Into The Bacterial Chromosome. b. A Bacterium Acquires DNA From The External Environment. c. Competent Cells Receive Plasmids. d. New Phage Particles Are Assembled In The Host Bacterium.

Last Answer : a. Phage DNA Integrates Into The Bacterial Chromosome.

Transposons are of particular significance because they a. often contain genes for antibiotic resistance. b. inhibit the effects of overlapping genes. c. come in pairs and often are associated with viruses. d. regulate gene transcription in bacterial cells.

Description : Transposons are of particular significance because they a. often contain genes for antibiotic resistance. b. inhibit the effects of overlapping genes. c. come in pairs and often are associated with viruses. d. regulate gene transcription in bacterial cells.

Last Answer : a. often contain genes for antibiotic resistance.

The promoter on an expression vector used to overproduce proteins in bacteria is A.a bacterial promoter B.expressed both in bacteria and mammalian cells C.not a regulated promoterD.the natural promoter of the gene being cloned

Description : The promoter on an expression vector used to overproduce proteins in bacteria is A.a bacterial promoter B.expressed both in bacteria and mammalian cells C.not a regulated promoter D.the natural promoter of the gene being cloned

Last Answer : A.a bacterial promoter

Bacterial cells susceptible to penicillium can be protected from destruction if the medium in which they are exposed is of A- high osmotic pressure B- low osmotic pressure C- moderate osmotic pressure D- high surface tension

Description : Bacterial cells susceptible to penicillium can be protected from destruction if the medium in which they are exposed is of A- high osmotic pressure B- low osmotic pressure C- moderate osmotic pressure D- high surface tension

Last Answer : high osmotic pressure

Treatment with bacterial endotoxins results blast formation in A- .B cells B- T cells C- Monocytes D- none of these

Description : Treatment with bacterial endotoxins results blast formation in A- .B cells B- T cells C- Monocytes D- none of these

Last Answer : B cells

During the stationary phase of bacterial growth, the population of living cells is _____ the population of dying cells. a. greater than b. smaller than c. equal to d. increasing faster than

Description : During the stationary phase of bacterial growth, the population of living cells is _____ the population of dying cells. a. greater than b. smaller than c. equal to d. increasing faster than

Last Answer : c. equal to

Reproduction in bacterial cells occurs by the sequence of events known as _____. a. mitosis b. binary fission c. selfing d. budding

Description : Reproduction in bacterial cells occurs by the sequence of events known as _____. a. mitosis b. binary fission c. selfing d. budding

Last Answer : b. binary fission

Which one of the following is NOT a structure or subcompartment found in bacterial cells? a. Micro compartments b. Volutin c. Ribosomes d. Mitochondria

Description : Which one of the following is NOT a structure or subcompartment found in bacterial cells? a. Micro compartments b. Volutin c. Ribosomes d. Mitochondria

Last Answer : d. Mitochondria

Flagella are a. Made of carbohydrate and lipid. b. Found on all bacterial cells. c. Contain dextran fiber d. Important for chemo taxis.

Description : Flagella are a. Made of carbohydrate and lipid. b. Found on all bacterial cells. c. Contain dextran fiber d. Important for chemo taxis.

Last Answer : d. Important for chemo taxis.

Spherical bacterial cells in chains would be a referred to as a _______ arrangement. a. Vibrio b. Streptococcus c. Staphylococcus d. Tetrad

Description : Spherical bacterial cells in chains would be a referred to as a _______ arrangement. a. Vibrio b. Streptococcus c. Staphylococcus d. Tetrad

Last Answer : b. Streptococcus

Which of the following do some bacterial cells use for motility? a. flagella b. cillia c. fimbriae d. pseudopodia

Description : Which of the following do some bacterial cells use for motility? a. flagella b. cillia c. fimbriae d. pseudopodia

Last Answer : a. flagella

Bacterial cells in biofilms can communicate with each other through a. osmosis b. quorum sensing c. diffusion d. enzymes

Description : Bacterial cells in biofilms can communicate with each other through a. osmosis b. quorum sensing c. diffusion d. enzymes

Last Answer : b. quorum sensing

Before bacterial cells are simple stained and observed with the light microscope, they must be a. Smeared on a slide. b. Heat fixed. c. Air dried. d. All the above (A—C) are correct.

Description : Before bacterial cells are simple stained and observed with the light microscope, they must be a. Smeared on a slide. b. Heat fixed. c. Air dried. d. All the above (A—C) are correct.

Last Answer : d. All the above (A—C) are correct.

Most bacterial cells are measured using what metric system of length? a. Millimeters (mm) b. Micrometers (µm) c. Nanometers (nm) d. Centimeters (cm)

Description : Most bacterial cells are measured using what metric system of length? a. Millimeters (mm) b. Micrometers (µm) c. Nanometers (nm) d. Centimeters (cm)

Last Answer : b. Micrometers (µm)

Which one of the following is NOT found in bacterial cells? a. Ribosomes b. DNA c. Mitochondria d. Cytoplasm

Description : Which one of the following is NOT found in bacterial cells? a. Ribosomes b. DNA c. Mitochondria d. Cytoplasm

Last Answer : c. Mitochondria

Which one of the following statements about interferon is FALSE? a. Interferon is produced in response to a viral infection. b. Interferon is a naturally produced protein. c. Interferon puts uninfected cells in an antiviral stated. Interferon is a protein that binds to RNA virus genomes..

Description : Which one of the following statements about interferon is FALSE? a. Interferon is produced in response to a viral infection. b. Interferon is a naturally produced protein. c. Interferon puts uninfected cells in an antiviral state. d. Interferon is a protein that binds to RNA virus genomes.

Last Answer : d. Interferon is a protein that binds to RNA virus genomes.

The stomach is a chemical barrier to infection because the stomach a. Contains bile. b. Harbors helicobacterpylori, a member of the host microbiota. c. Possesses defensive cells. d. Has an acid ph.

Description : The stomach is a chemical barrier to infection because the stomach a. Contains bile. b. Harbors helicobacterpylori, a member of the host microbiota. c. Possesses defensive cells. d. Has an acid ph.

Last Answer : d. Has an acid ph.

Tissue tropism refers to a. what tissues grow due to a viral infection. b. what tissues are resistant to viral infection. c. what organisms a virus infects. d. what cells or tissues a virus infects.

Description : Tissue tropism refers to a. what tissues grow due to a viral infection. b. what tissues are resistant to viral infection. c. what organisms a virus infects. d. what cells or tissues a virus infects.

Last Answer : d. what cells or tissues a virus infects.

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (or PMNs) A- can be attracted to the site of an infection following activation of complement B- are derived from bone marrow stem cells C- are a type of phagocyte that can engulf and kill bacteria D- .all of the above

Description : Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (or PMNs) A- can be attracted to the site of an infection following activation of complement B- are derived from bone marrow stem cells C- are a type of phagocyte that can engulf and kill bacteria D- .all of the above

Last Answer : .all of the above

______ form the bulk of microbial products of industrial interest. a. primary metabolites b. secondary metabolites c. tertiary metabolites d. quaternary metabolites

Description : ______ form the bulk of microbial products of industrial interest. a. primary metabolites b. secondary metabolites c. tertiary metabolites d. quaternary metabolites

Last Answer : b. secondary metabolites

______ infections are more common in AIDS or cancer patients. a. Indigenous b. Opportunistic c. Primary d. Secondary

Description : ______ infections are more common in AIDS or cancer patients. a. Indigenous b. Opportunistic c. Primary d. Secondary

Last Answer : b. Opportunistic

A chancre is typical of which stage of syphilis? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Chronic, latent

Description : A chancre is typical of which stage of syphilis? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Chronic, latent

Last Answer : a. Primary

Trickling filter comes under A- primary treatment B- secondary treatmentC- tertiary treatment D- none of these

Description : Trickling filter comes under A- primary treatment B- secondary treatment C- tertiary treatment D- none of these

Last Answer : secondary treatment

Negative phase is observed in A- secondary humoral response B- primary humoral response C- both (a) and (b) D- none of the above

Description : Negative phase is observed in A- secondary humoral response B- primary humoral response C- both (a) and (b) D- none of the above

Last Answer : secondary humoral response

Denaturation refers to the loss of the ______ structure of a ______ molecule. a. primary; carbohydrate b. molecular; fat c. secondary; starch d. tertiary; protein

Description : Denaturation refers to the loss of the ______ structure of a ______ molecule. a. primary; carbohydrate b. molecular; fat c. secondary; starch d. tertiary; protein

Last Answer : d. tertiary; protein

The _______ structure of a protein is the sequence of amino acids. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary

Description : The _______ structure of a protein is the sequence of amino acids. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary

Last Answer : a. primary