Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is correct EXCEPT: D A. Hookworm infection is caused by Necator americanus. B. Hookworm infection can cause anemia. C. Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when filariform larvae penetrate the skin. D. Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the stool

Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is correct EXCEPT:
D
A. Hookworm infection is caused by Necator americanus.
B. Hookworm infection can cause anemia.
C. Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when
filariform larvae penetrate the skin.
D. Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the
trophozoite in the stool
by

1 Answer

Answer :

Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the
trophozoite in the stool
by

Related questions

Assertion : Ancylostoma duodenale is odd world hook worm. Reason : Humans are infected when filariform larvae in the mosit soil penetrate the skin, us

Description : Assertion : Ancylostoma duodenale is odd world hook worm. Reason : Humans are infected when filariform larvae in the mosit soil penetrate the skin, us

Last Answer : Assertion : Ancylostoma duodenale is odd world hook worm. Reason : Humans are infected when filariform ... D. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Acquired by consuming contaminated ****. a. Taenia solium b. Echinococcus c. Necator americanus

Description : Acquired by consuming contaminated pork. a. Taenia solium b. Echinococcus c. Necator americanus

Last Answer : b. Echinococcus

A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation). b) anorectal abscess. An anorectal abscess is an infection in the pararectal spaces. c) anal fistula. An anal fistula is a tiny, tubular, fibrous tract that extends into the anal canal from an opening located beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Description : A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent ... beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Last Answer : a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation).

Trichocephaliasis is known as __________ C A. threadworm infection B. pinworm infection C. Whipworm disease D. hookworm

Description : Trichocephaliasis is known as __________ C A. threadworm infection B. pinworm infection C. Whipworm disease D. hookworm

Last Answer : Whipworm diseas

What happens during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum? (a) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida. (b) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails. (c) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one. (d) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida.

Description : What happens during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum? (a) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida. (b) All sperms except ... all the sperms except one. (d) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida.

Last Answer : (a) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida.

Factors that decrease collagen synthesis include all of the following except: A. Protein depletion. B. Infection. C. Anemia. D. Advanced age. E. Hypoxia.

Description : Factors that decrease collagen synthesis include all of the following except: A. Protein depletion. B. Infection. C. Anemia. D. Advanced age. E. Hypoxia.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Collagen synthesis, an integral part of wound healing, is affected by many local and systemic factors. Protein depletion impairs fibroplasia. Hypoproteinemia leads to diminution of ... more than any other factor, wound infection is associated with the risk of wound failure

The following is true of levamisole except: A. A single dose cures over 90% cases of round worm infestation B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale C. It has immunomodulating action D. Its prolonged use causes severe reactions

Description : The following is true of levamisole except: A. A single dose cures over 90% cases of round worm infestation B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale C. It has immunomodulating action D. Its prolonged use causes severe reactions

Last Answer : B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale

An important finding of Fabry’s disease is (A) Skin rash (B) Exophthalmos (C) Hemolytic anemia (D) Mental retardation

Description : An important finding of Fabry’s disease is (A) Skin rash (B) Exophthalmos (C) Hemolytic anemia (D) Mental retardation

Last Answer : Answer : A

The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

Description : The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a ... . d) local arterial insufficiency. Local arterial insufficiency is characterized by marked localized pallor.

Last Answer : a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5–10 rules out fluid overload as a cause of pulmonary edema b. A shift to the right in the Frank-Starling curve is associated with compromised cardiac function c. Dilutional anemia may contribute to tachycardia even though blood volume and filling pressures are normal d. The sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5-10 rules out ... sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Although physical findings are often adequate to establish a diagnosis and institute management of cardiac failure, direct measurement of filling pressures of the right heart ( ... blood volume is normal, filling pressures are normal, and total body extracellular fluid is excessive

Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first choice antibiotic for any specific infection C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Description : Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first ... of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Last Answer : C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera

Of the following hemolytic anemias, which is categorized as inherited? a) Sickle cell anemia Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an inherited abnormality resulting in hemolytic anemia. b) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an acquired anemia. c) Cold agglutinin disease Cold agglutinin disease is an acquired anemia. d) Hypersplenism Hypersplenism results in an acquired hemolytic anemia.

Description : Of the following hemolytic anemias, which is categorized as inherited? a) Sickle cell anemia Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an inherited abnormality resulting in hemolytic anemia. b ... is an acquired anemia. d) Hypersplenism Hypersplenism results in an acquired hemolytic anemia.

Last Answer : a) Sickle cell anemia Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an inherited abnormality resulting in hemolytic anemia.

Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia Anemia refers to decreased red cell mass. c) Leukopenia Leukopenia refers to a less-than-normal amount of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia ... of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Last Answer : a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired.

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus b. Viral infections occur at equal frequency anytime during the post-transplantation period c. CMV infection in the post-transplant patient is most likely a pulmonary process d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus ... HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, Solid organ transplant patients are prone to develop viral infection by virtue of exogenous immunosuppression. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are those ... transplant patient or as painful herpes zoster in patients who have previously developed chicken pox

Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for blood administration. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the transmission of infectious disease during blood transfusions? a. Post-transfusion hepatitis is usually due to hepatitis B b. Hepatitis and HIV transmission is greatest with the administration of pooled plasma products such as serum albumin c. The most important cause of post-transfusion disease in immunosuppressed patients is CMV infection d. The risk of HIV transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

Description : Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for ... transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The most common infectious diseases transmitted during blood transfusions include viral hepatitis, CMV, and HIV infection. Post-transfusion hepatitis in 90% of cases consists of ... infectious disease transmission, the risks of HIV transmission is markedly less than that of hepatitis

All of the following statements concerning the actinomycetous filamentous soil bacterium Frankia are correct except that Frankia (a) can induce root nodules on many plant species (b) can fix nitrogen in the free-living state (c) cannot fix specialized vesicles in which the nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by a chemical barrier involving triterpene hopanoids (d) like Rhizobium, it usually infects its host plant through root hair deformation and stimulates cell proliferation in the host’s cortex

Description : All of the following statements concerning the actinomycetous filamentous soil bacterium Frankia are correct except that Frankia (a) can induce root nodules on many plant species (b) can fix ... its host plant through root hair deformation and stimulates cell proliferation in the host's cortex

Last Answer : (b) can fix nitrogen in the free-living state

Which of the following is true concerning a 68 year old male with type 2 diabetes diagnosed with type IV renal tubal acidosis? 1) Aminoaciduria would be expected. 2) Fludrocortisone treatment is effective 3) Increased Glomerular filtration rate is expected. 4) Increased urinary bicarbonate would be expected. 5) Normal renal handling of K+ and H+

Description : Which of the following is true concerning a 68 year old male with type 2 diabetes diagnosed with type IV renal tubal acidosis? 1) Aminoaciduria would be expected. 2) Fludrocortisone treatment is effective ... 4) Increased urinary bicarbonate would be expected. 5) Normal renal handling of K+ and H+

Last Answer : Answers-2 H+ secretion, sodium reabsorption and ammonia production diminishes. RTA 4 is in effect hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism or failure of aldosterone action and thus helped treated with ... particularly. Aminoaciduria and increased urine bicarbonate are features of RTA types 1 and 2.

According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma). b) primary. Primary hypertension has no known underlying cause. c) essential. Essential hypertension has no known underlying cause. d) isolated systolic. Isolated systolic hypertension is demonstrated by readings in which the systolic pressure exceeds 140 mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Description : According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of ... mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Last Answer : a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma).

All of the following statements about bronzed diabetes are true except (A) It is caused by excessive intake of copper (B) Skin becomes pigmented (C) There is damage to β cells of Islets of Langerhans (D) Liver is damaged

Description : All of the following statements about bronzed diabetes are true except (A) It is caused by excessive intake of copper (B) Skin becomes pigmented (C) There is damage to β cells of Islets of Langerhans (D) Liver is damaged

Last Answer : Answer : A

A healthy person can be diagnosed as having a infection with the multiplication of bacterial cells in the blood. a. Primary; bacteremia b. Primary; vermeil c. Primary; septicemia d. Secondary; parasitemia

Description : A healthy person can be diagnosed as having a infection with the multiplication of bacterial cells in the blood. a. Primary; bacteremia b. Primary; vermeil c. Primary; septicemia d. Secondary; parasitemia

Last Answer : c. Primary; septicemia

Which of the following infection(s) can be diagnosed by the use of polymerase chain reaction? A- HIV-1 and HIV-2 viruses B- Hepatitis B virus C- Mycobacterium tuberculosis D- All of these

Description : Which of the following infection(s) can be diagnosed by the use of polymerase chain reaction? A- HIV-1 and HIV-2 viruses B- Hepatitis B virus C- Mycobacterium tuberculosis D- All of these

Last Answer : All of these

Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods. b) Stenosis Mitral valve stenosis usually causes progressive fatigue. c) Regurgitation Mitral valve regurgitation, in its acute stage, usually presents as severe heart failure. d) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Description : Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more ... ) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Last Answer : a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods.

Sepsis causes a marked metabolic response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the metabolic response to sepsis? a. Oxygen consumption is increased in the face of infection b. In a patient with a maximal metabolic rate secondary to trauma, the presence of infection will increase the rate further c. Metabolic rate increases at a rate of approximately 10% for each increase of 1°C in central temperature d. The extent of increase in oxygen consumption relates to the severity of the infection

Description : Sepsis causes a marked metabolic response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the metabolic response to sepsis? a. Oxygen consumption is increased in the face of infection ... d. The extent of increase in oxygen consumption relates to the severity of the infection

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Oxygen consumption is usually elevated in the infected patient. The extent of this increase is related to the severity of the infection, with peak elevations reaching 50% ... suggest that the metabolic rate increases 10% to 13% for each elevation of 1°C in central temperature

Consider the following statements: 1. Malaria can be contained with the introduction of larvicidal fish, gambusia, in ponds, tanks and puddles. 2. Gambusia is highly specific in devouring larvae of female anopheline mosquitoes. Which of the above statements are true? (a) 1, 2 (b) 1 only (c) 2 only (d) Neither of the two

Description : Consider the following statements: 1. Malaria can be contained with the introduction of larvicidal fish, gambusia, in ponds, tanks and puddles. 2. Gambusia is highly specific in devouring larvae of female anopheline mosquitoes. Which ... true? (a) 1, 2 (b) 1 only (c) 2 only (d) Neither of the two

Last Answer : Ans:(b)

The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except (a) Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors (b) Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier (c) Individual susceptibility (d) Ratio of H1 : H2 blockade produced by the drug

Description : The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except (a) Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors (b) Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier (c) Individual susceptibility (d) Ratio of H1 : H2 blockade produced by the drug

Last Answer : Ans: D

The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

Description : The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

Last Answer : D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

Description : The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

Last Answer : D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually presents with thrombosis while on heparin or exhibits an inability to become adequately anticoagulated with heparin b. This deficiency may be either congenital or acquired c. Thrombotic episodes are related to predisposing events such as operations, childbirth, and infections d. Treatment involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Description : Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually ... involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Antithrombin III deficiency accounts for about 2% of venous thrombotic event. This deficiency has been described in patients with pulmonary embolism, mesenteric venous ... is established, fresh frozen plasma should be administered followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Attaches to host tissue by hooks. a. Necator b. Trichinella c. Enterobius

Description : Attaches to host tissue by hooks. a. Necator b. Trichinella c. Enterobius

Last Answer : a. Necator

Type of tapeworm. a. Taenia b. Echinococcus c. Necator

Description : Type of tapeworm. a. Taenia b. Echinococcus c. Necator

Last Answer : a. Taenia

Type of fluke.a. Schistosoma b. Necator c. Echinococcus

Description : Type of fluke. a. Schistosoma b. Necator c. Echinococcus

Last Answer : a. Schistosoma

How much time does a mosquito take to penetrate the human skin?

Description : How much time does a mosquito take to penetrate the human skin?

Last Answer : From being bitten thousands of times I would say less than a second.

31 Scalding with steam is more severe than scalding by boiling water because A. Steam can penetrate the skin B. Steam is at a higher temperature C. Steam contains more energy than boiling water D. Steam is at a higher pressure

Description : 31 Scalding with steam is more severe than scalding by boiling water because A. Steam can penetrate the skin B. Steam is at a higher temperature C. Steam contains more energy than boiling water D. Steam is at a higher pressure

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

Scalding with steam is more severe than scalding by boiling water because (a) steam can penetrate the skin (b) steam is at a higher temperature (c) steam contains more energy than boiling water (d) steam is at a higher pressure

Description : Scalding with steam is more severe than scalding by boiling water because (a) steam can penetrate the skin (b) steam is at a higher temperature (c) steam contains more energy than boiling water (d) steam is at a higher pressure

Last Answer : Ans:(c)

This disease, caused by infection with the gram-negative Yersinia pestis, is transmitted by fleas from rats to humans What is the more common name for this disease?

Description : This disease, caused by infection with the gram-negative Yersinia pestis, is transmitted by fleas from rats to humans What is the more common name for this disease?

Last Answer : ANSWER: Bubonic Plague or Black Death

Give one example each of characters that are inherited and the ones that are acquired in humans. Mention the difference between the inherited and the acquired characters. -Biology

Description : Give one example each of characters that are inherited and the ones that are acquired in humans. Mention the difference between the inherited and the acquired characters. -Biology

Last Answer : Eye colour or hair colour of a person is an example of inherited character whereas, body weight is an example of acquired character. The basic difference between inherited and acquired ... and acquired characters are acquired by an individual during his lifetime depending upon his lifestyle.

An important finding in Tay-sach’s disease is (A) Renal failure (B) Accumulation of gangliosides in brain and spleen (C) Cardiac failure (D) Anemia

Description : An important finding in Tay-sach’s disease is (A) Renal failure (B) Accumulation of gangliosides in brain and spleen (C) Cardiac failure (D) Anemia

Last Answer : Answer : B

Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement : (1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis (2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules (3) Sickel cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules (4) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis

Description : Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement : (1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis (2 ... problem of globin molecules (4) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis

Last Answer : (2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules

Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient’s weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit, 5% dextrose intravenous solutions are adequate for the initial postoperative source of nutrition b. Preoperative immunologic status should be determined including total peripheral lymphocyte count and delayed hypersensitivity reaction to determine skin-test response to common antigens c. Routine postoperative fluid administration with intravenous 5% glucose solutions can provide the calories to meet basal energy requirements d. A jejunal feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Description : Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient's weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit ... feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Last Answer : Answer: a Most patients undergoing elective operations are adequately nourished. Unless the patient has suffered significant preoperative malnutrition, characterized by weight loss greater than ... gastrointestinal surgery, this technique would not appear indicated in the patient described above

Which one of the following is the infective stage of the Malarial Parasite? (1) schigozoite (2) trophozoite (3) sporoblast (4) sporozoite

Description : Which one of the following is the infective stage of the Malarial Parasite? (1) schigozoite (2) trophozoite (3) sporoblast (4) sporozoite

Last Answer : (4) sporozoite Explanation: When a mosquito sucks the blood of a person who has malaria parasites in his or her blood, the mosquito picks male and female gametocytes where they undergo ... parasites in the mosquito. This process takes about 10 -14 days depending on environmental temperature.

Pentatrichomonas hominis A. Have a cystic stageB. Have a trophozoite stageC. Do not have a cystic stagD. Do not have a cystic and trophozoite stage

Description : Pentatrichomonas hominis A. Have a cystic stage B. Have a trophozoite stage C. Do not have a cystic stag D. Do not have a cystic and trophozoite stage

Last Answer : Do not have a cystic stag

Trophozoite of Giardia lamblia have A A. 2 flagella B. 4 flagella C. 5 Flagella D. 6 flagella

Description : Trophozoite of Giardia lamblia have A A. 2 flagella B. 4 flagella C. 5 Flagella D. 6 flagella

Last Answer : 2 flagella

The infective stage of malarial parasite, Plasmodium that enters human body is (a) merozoite (b) sporozoite (c) trophozoite (d) minuta form.

Description : The infective stage of malarial parasite, Plasmodium that enters human body is (a) merozoite (b) sporozoite (c) trophozoite (d) minuta form.

Last Answer : b) sporozoite

.______ enters the human body as a cyst and develops into a trophozoite in the small intestine; a severe form of dysentery may occur. a. Cryptosporidium parvum b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Giardia intestinalis d. Cyclospora cayetanensis

Description : .______ enters the human body as a cyst and develops into a trophozoite in the small intestine; a severe form of dysentery may occur. a. Cryptosporidium parvum b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Giardia intestinalis d. Cyclospora cayetanensis

Last Answer : b. Entamoeba histolytica

How many stages in B. coli have? a) trophozoite b) cystic c) trophozoite & cystic d) none

Description : How many stages in B. coli have? a) trophozoite b) cystic c) trophozoite & cystic d) none

Last Answer : c) trophozoite & cystic

Which one of the following is the infective stage of the Malarial Parasite? (1) schigozoite (2) trophozoite (3) sporoblast (4) sporozoite

Description : Which one of the following is the infective stage of the Malarial Parasite? (1) schigozoite (2) trophozoite (3) sporoblast (4) sporozoite

Last Answer : sporozoite

___________ means itching caused by dry skin, parasitic infection or disease. A. Scabies B. Herpes Zoster C. Pruritis

Description : ___________ means itching caused by dry skin, parasitic infection or disease. A. Scabies B. Herpes Zoster C. Pruritis

Last Answer : Ans: C

What's a good way to get rid of loose stool caused by lots of highly potent antibiotics?

Description : What's a good way to get rid of loose stool caused by lots of highly potent antibiotics?

Last Answer : answer:Keep up with probiotics. Also, a small amount of fiber will help your stool bulk. I like GoodBelly probiotic juice and a tablespoon of chia seeds stirred in, once a day. Are you allowed to use pepto bismol? That firms things up too. But the probiotics will help best in the long term.