Products of platelet degranulation include: a. Tumor necrosis factor b. Interleukin-1 c. Transforming growth factor b d. Platelet-derived growth factor

Products of platelet degranulation include: a. Tumor necrosis factor b. Interleukin-1 c. Transforming growth factor b d. Platelet-derived growth factor
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Answer: c, d  The initial response to injury and disruption of a blood vessel is bleeding. The hemostatic response to this is clot formation to stop hemorrhage. Platelet plug formation initiates the hemostatic process along with clotting factors activated by collagen and the basement membrane proteins exposed by the injury. Platelets then degranulate, releasing the contents of their alpha granules and dense granules, most notably platelet derived growth factor and transforming growth factor b. These substances initiate chemotaxis and proliferation of inflammatory cells, beginning the inflammatory response that will ultimately heal the wound. Tumor necrosis factor and interleukin-1 also stimulate fibroblast proliferation, however are produced by macrophages
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Cytokines with clearly defined actions in acute inflammation and early tissue injury include which of the following? a. Cysteine-X-Cysteine (C-X-C) chemokines b. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNFa) c. Transforming Growth Factor-b (TGF-b) d. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) e. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)

Description : Cytokines with clearly defined actions in acute inflammation and early tissue injury include which of the following? a. Cysteine-X-Cysteine (C-X-C) chemokines b. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNFa) c. Transforming Growth Factor-b (TGF-b) d. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) e. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d, e Polypeptide mediators, such as TNFa and IL-1, are considered early response cytokines and are actively involved in the initiation of the ... of tissue repair. Thus, coagulation and platelet activation provide the initial foundation for subsequent cellular recruitment

Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a major proinflammatory mediator with multiple effects, including regulation of skeletal muscle proteolysis in patients with sepsis or significant injury. C. Platelet-activating factor (PAF) is a major cytokine that results in platelet aggregation, bronchoconstriction, and increased vascular permeability. D. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a), despite its short plasma half-life, appears to be a principal mediator in the evolution of sepsis and the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.

Description : Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) ... organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Cytokines are soluble peptide molecules that are synthesized and secreted by a number of cell types in response to injury, inflammation, and infection. Cytokines, which ... is thought to play a central role in the stress response, particularly in response to endotoxemia

Cytokines which play an important role in the metabolic response to injury include: a. Tumor necrosis factor—a (TNF) b. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) c. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) d. Interferon-g

Description : Cytokines which play an important role in the metabolic response to injury include: a. Tumor necrosis factor—a (TNF) b. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) c. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) d. Interferon-g

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d TNF or cachetin is considered the primary mediator of the systemic effects of endotoxin, producing anorexia, fever, tachypnea, and tachycardia at low doses and hypotension, ... infected sells. IFN-g has the ability to upregulate the number of TNF receptors on various cell types

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning pharmacologic agents used to accelerate wound healing? a. A number of these agents are now currently approved for use in this country b. PDGF (platelet-derived growth factor) promotes fibroblast proliferation, chemotaxis, and collagenase synthesis c. PDGF has been demonstrated in a number of clinical trials to promote healing in chronic wounds d. Growth hormone functions by promoting fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning pharmacologic agents used to accelerate wound healing? a. A number of these agents are now currently approved for use in ... healing in chronic wounds d. Growth hormone functions by promoting fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Currently there are no approved clinical agents that accelerate normal healing. Although a number of clinical trials are in progress, no agents are currently ... hormone administration significantly accelerates donor site healing, presumably due to its effects in minimizing catabolism

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or inflammatory stimuli b. The liver and gut appear to be a major source of TNF following hypoperfusion c. Circulating levels of TNF correlate well with severity of tissue injury in shock d. Recently completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or ... completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Tumor necrosis factor (TNF), a protein product of activated macrophages, is secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or ... patients utilizing infusion of monoclonal antibodies to the TNF molecule have shown no overall survival benefit

Which of the following statements about septic shock are true? A. A circulating myocardial depressant factor may account for the cardiac dysfunction sometimes seen with shock due to sepsis or SIRS. B. A cardiac index (CI) of 6 liters per minute per square meter of body surface, a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 15 mm. Hg, and a systemic vascular resistance index (SVRI) of 800 dynes-sec/(cm 5-m 2) is a hemodynamic profile consistent with septic shock. C. An increase in SvO 2 in septic patients may be explained by the finding of anatomic arteriovenous shunts. D. Results of human trials employing antimediator therapy, such as antiendotoxin antibodies, IL-1 receptor antagonist, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antibodies, have confirmed animal studies that demonstrate a significant im

Description : Which of the following statements about septic shock are true? A. A circulating myocardial depressant factor may account for the cardiac dysfunction sometimes seen with shock due to sepsis or ... animal studies that demonstrate a significant improvement in survival with the use of such agents.

Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Shock due to sepsis or SIRS frequently manifests as a hyperdynamic cardiovascular response, consisting of an elevated CI and a decreased SVR or SVRI. Occasionally, ... been encouraging thus far in human clinical trials, despite the promising results from many animal studies

Which of the following statements regarding transforming growth factor b (TGF-b) are true? a. TGF-b expression is autoregulated b. TGF-b enhances collagen synthesis c. TGF-b inhibits extracellular matrix production d. TGF-b may inhibit or promote cellular proliferation

Description : Which of the following statements regarding transforming growth factor b (TGF-b) are true? a. TGF-b expression is autoregulated b. TGF-b enhances collagen synthesis c. TGF-b inhibits extracellular matrix production d. TGF-b may inhibit or promote cellular proliferation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d TGF-b appears to be one of the key cytokines in control of tissue repair. TGF-b is strongly chemotactic for neutrophils, T cells, monocytes, and fibroblasts. ... TGF-b stimulates the proliferation of densely plated human marrow fibroblasts, but is inhibitory at high concentrations

Which of the following is/are true of the actions of transforming growth factor beta (TGF-b) during wound repair? A. Increased matrix and proteoglycan synthesis. B. Inhibition of proteases. C. Stimulation of plasminogen inhibitor. D. Chemotaxis for fibroblasts and macrophages. E. Autoinduction of TGF-b.

Description : Which of the following is/are true of the actions of transforming growth factor beta (TGF-b) during wound repair? A. Increased matrix and proteoglycan synthesis. B. Inhibition of proteases. ... of plasminogen inhibitor. D. Chemotaxis for fibroblasts and macrophages. E. Autoinduction of TGF-b.

Last Answer : Answer: ABDE DISCUSSION: Through autocrine and paracrine mechanisms TGF-b stimulates the deposition of collagen and other matrix components by fibroblasts, inhibits proteases, blocks plasminogen inhibitor, ... effects. The sustained production of TGF-b at the wound site leads to tissue fibrosis

Appropriate guidelines for the use of TPN in cancer patients include: a. Long-term TPN in patients with rapid progressive tumor growth unresponsive to other therapy b. Mildly malnourished patients undergoing surgery for a curable cancer c. Preoperatively administered TPN prior to surgery or other therapy in patients with severe malnutrition d. Patients in whom treatment toxicity precludes the use of enteral nutrition

Description : Appropriate guidelines for the use of TPN in cancer patients include: a. Long-term TPN in patients with rapid progressive tumor growth unresponsive to other therapy b. Mildly malnourished ... with severe malnutrition d. Patients in whom treatment toxicity precludes the use of enteral nutrition

Last Answer : Answer: c, d As a general rule, the most important factor to consider when making decisions about the use of TPN in patients with cancer is the response of the tumor to antineoplastic ... . Long-term TPN is not indicated with rapidly progressive tumor growth which is unresponsive to such therapy

Interleukin-6 is recognized as the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic protein synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning acute phase protein response to surgical stress? a. Glucocorticoid hormones inhibit this response b. Proteins such as albumin and transferrin which serve in serum transport are generally increased in this response c. Examples of acute phase proteins include fibrinogen and C-reactive protein d. In general, the physiologic role of acute phase proteins are to reduce the systemic effects of tissue damage

Description : Interleukin-6 is recognized as the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic protein synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ... physiologic role of acute phase proteins are to reduce the systemic effects of tissue damage

Last Answer : Answer: c, d IL-6 is now recognized at the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Glucocorticoid hormones augment ... that generally inhibit the tissue destruction that is associated with the local initiation of inflammation

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the immunoinflammatory response to shock? a. The anaphylactoxins, C3a and C5a, are products of activation of only the classical pathway of the compliment cascade b. Eicosanoids, such as prostaglandins are stored in platelets and endothelial cells and released in response to inflammatory stimuli c. Thromboxane and PGI2 have similar effects d. Platelet-activating factor can be released by both circulating and fixed tissue cells

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the immunoinflammatory response to shock? a. The anaphylactoxins, C3a and C5a, are products of activation of only the classical pathway ... effects d. Platelet-activating factor can be released by both circulating and fixed tissue cells

Last Answer : Answer: d Inflammatory mediators have recently been recognized as playing a significant role in the clinical manifestations and progression of shock and the development ... increased pulmonary vascular resistance, bronchoconstriction, peripheral vasodilatation, and increased vascular permeability

Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous thrombosis include: a. Enhancement of antithrombin III activity b. A decrease in thrombin availability c. Inhibition of platelet aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Description : Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous ... aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Low-dose heparin is thought to protect against venous thrombosis through three different mechanisms. First, antithrombin III activity with its inhibition of activated Factor X is ... release reaction. The standard doses of heparin administered (5000 units bid) does not affect aPTT

The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count (CBC), including platelet count. C. Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Description : The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count ( ... (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Last Answer : Answer: A DISCUSSION: The evaluation of most patients scheduled for elective surgery who do not have a history of significant bleeding disorders is somewhat controversial. An adequate history and ... suspected of having qualitative defects of platelet function (e.g., von Willebrand's disease)

True statements regarding eicosanoids include which of the following? A. Prostaglandins and thromboxanes are synthesized via the cyclo-oxygenase pathway. B. The vasoconstricting, platelet-aggregating, and bronchoconstricting effects of thromboxane A 2 are balanced by the actions of prostacyclin, which produces the opposite effects. C. Leukotriene synthesis is inhibited by the action of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). D. The principal prostaglandins have a short circulation half-life and exert most of their effects locally.

Description : True statements regarding eicosanoids include which of the following? A. Prostaglandins and thromboxanes are synthesized via the cyclo-oxygenase pathway. B. The vasoconstricting, platelet-aggregating, ... prostaglandins have a short circulation half-life and exert most of their effects locally.

Last Answer : Answer: ABD DISCUSSION: The eicosanoids are a group of compounds arising from the metabolism of arachidonic acid. The prostaglandins and thromboxanes are synthesized via the cyclo-oxygenase ... effects and may be involved in the physiologic responses associated with anaphylactic and septic shock

Which of the following statements regarding angiogenesis are true? a. Angiogenesis is a seminal biologic event with clinical relevance limited to its effect upon tumor growth b. C-X-C chemokines regulate angiogenesis c. PF-4 has angiogenic properties d. Sites of atherosclerosis demonstrate chronic angiogenic activity

Description : Which of the following statements regarding angiogenesis are true? a. Angiogenesis is a seminal biologic event with clinical relevance limited to its effect upon tumor growth b. C-X-C ... c. PF-4 has angiogenic properties d. Sites of atherosclerosis demonstrate chronic angiogenic activity

Last Answer : Answer: b, d An important component of tissue repair and wound healing is the process of angiogenesis. This normal, physiologic process is a local, transient event which is ... between these factors may govern overall angiogenic potential in a variety of physiological and pathophysiological states

In the nutritional support of patients with cancer, which of the following statements is/are true? A. Nutritional support benefits the patient's lean body mass but does not enable the tumor to grow. B. In experimental animals, the growth of implanted tumors is directly proportional to the amount of calories and protein supplied. C. Prospective randomized trials of nutritional support utilizing chemotherapy and radiation therapy have revealed benefits to patients receiving total parenteral nutrition. D. Studies of nutritional support for patients with cancer about to undergo surgery revealed decreased morbidity and mortality, especially morbidity from sepsis.

Description : In the nutritional support of patients with cancer, which of the following statements is/are true? A. Nutritional support benefits the patient's lean body mass but does not enable ... with cancer about to undergo surgery revealed decreased morbidity and mortality, especially morbidity from sepsis.

Last Answer : Answer: B DISCUSSION: The problem with the patient with cancer is a very vexing one. Clearly, one of the metabolic effects of cancer, cachexia, affects patients in the last quartile ... undoubtedly reveal that there are certain nutrients that tumors require, which probably should be best avoided

A 67-year-old male with advanced cholangiocarcinoma develops gram-negative sepsis. Excessive bleeding is noted around vascular catheters and from needle puncture sites. The diagnosis of disseminated intervascular coagulation (DIC) is considered. Which of the following laboratory test(s) is/are indicative of DIC? a. Decreased platelet count b. Decreased fibrinogen level c. Normal prothrombin time d. Elevated fibrin split products

Description : A 67-year-old male with advanced cholangiocarcinoma develops gram-negative sepsis. Excessive bleeding is noted around vascular catheters and from needle puncture sites. The diagnosis of disseminated ... b. Decreased fibrinogen level c. Normal prothrombin time d. Elevated fibrin split products

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is the primary form of acute thrombosis. Causes of this syndrome include abruptio placenta, gram-positive and gram-negative sepsis, ... decline in the platelet count and fibrinogen level, along with an elevation of fibrin split products

Platelet activating factor is: a. Generated by the action of phospholipase A2 on membrane phospholipids b. Antiinflammatory in most of its actions c. Synthesized by endothelial and other cells d. Exerts a variety of biologic effects which are platelet-independent

Description : Platelet activating factor is: a. Generated by the action of phospholipase A2 on membrane phospholipids b. Antiinflammatory in most of its actions c. Synthesized by endothelial and other cells d. Exerts a variety of biologic effects which are platelet-independent

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Like the eicosanoids, platelet-activating factor (PAF) is not stored in cells but is rapidly produced during inflammation. PAF exerts a variety of biologic effects ... and LTB4. There is considerable overlap and redundancy in the effects produced by PAF and eicosanoids

Which of the following substances, not normally present in the circulation, trigger the initiating events in the hemostatic process? a. Thrombin b. Platelet factor 3 c. Tissue factor d. Collagen

Description : Which of the following substances, not normally present in the circulation, trigger the initiating events in the hemostatic process? a. Thrombin b. Platelet factor 3 c. Tissue factor d. Collagen

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The initiating agents for hemostasis involve two substances that are not normally present in the circulation-collagen and tissue factor. Tissue factor is released from ... phospholipid surface to form the so-called prothrombinase complex which catalyzes the formation of thrombin

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for bleeding disorders present in all patients c. Laboratory tests reveal a prolongation of aPTT, prothrombin time (PT), thrombin clotting time and platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for ... platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII although 0% of cases are secondary to spontaneous mutation. The incidence of this abnormality is ... factor levels as low as 1% have been noted and patients are at risk for spontaneous bleeding

The initiation of a humoral immune response involves a complex interaction of the antigen, cells and intercellular messengers. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the initiation of the humoral immune response is/are correct? a. Helper T lymphocytes stimulate B lymphocytes through secretion of cytokines such as interleukin 4 and 6 b. A number of cells can aid in presenting the antigen to the helper T cell including B lymphocytes and macrophages c. All antigens require coordinated efforts of the various cellular components of the immune system d. An antigen must be a living microorganism

Description : The initiation of a humoral immune response involves a complex interaction of the antigen, cells and intercellular messengers. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the initiation of the ... various cellular components of the immune system d. An antigen must be a living microorganism

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Stimulation of the immune system occurs after a variety of antigen-presenting cells (B lymphocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells, and Langerhans cells) act to engulf ... polysaccharides), most antigens require coordinated efforts of the various cellular components of the immune system

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the outcome in patients with acute renal failure? a. Mortality for ischemic acute tubular necrosis without other organ failure is approximately 6% b. Multiple organ failure complicated with acute renal failure is associated with mortality ranging from 50% to 90% c. Recovery of renal function after six weeks is unlikely d. There is no difference in survival between oliguric and nonoliguric renal failure

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the outcome in patients with acute renal failure? a. Mortality for ischemic acute tubular necrosis without other organ failure is ... is unlikely d. There is no difference in survival between oliguric and nonoliguric renal failure

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Survival of patients with acute renal failure is a function of the successful treatment of the primary disease from which the renal failure was derived. The mortality ... is unlikely. Nonoliguric renal failure is usually limited in its extent and is almost always reversible

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating insult has prompted oliguric acute tubular necrosis, renal function tends to be maintained early in the course of MOFS c. Although hepatic dysfunction is common with MOFS, the GI tract plays little role in this process d. Intercurrent nosocomial infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a “second hit” to the patient

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating ... infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a second hit to the patient

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Pulmonary dysfunction typically arises early in the development of systemic inflammation and may represent mild relatively localized acute lung injury or it may be a prelude ... is marked by progressive rise in serum bilirubin levels after a latent period of several days

A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain of the fluid, which will likely demonstrate multiple bacteria including predominantly gram-positive rods b. A CT scan is indicated in a stable patient to define the extent of the disease c. Broad spectrum antibiotics followed with prompt extensive debridement is indicated d. A safe guideline is to resect infected necrotic tissue so that a several centimeter margin of grossly normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Description : A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain ... normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The presence of severe perineal infection (referred to as Fournier gangrene when this process involves the perineum and scrotum in males) is associated with a ... often provides improved wound care and patient management, although it is not invariably a positive outcome

The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration of warfarin? a. An important complication of warfarin therapy is skin necrosis in patients with protein C deficiency b. Warfarin interferes with vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X c. For effective anticoagulation the prothrombin time (PT) should be kept at 2 control d. It is recommended that warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Description : The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration ... warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time

Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A platelet count of 50,000/µL or more usually ensures hemostasis b. Bleeding time assays assessibility of platelets to perform hemostatic plugs and is determined from a sample of blood drawn in an EDTA coated test tube c. Aspirin therapy can be associated with a bleeding time in the range of 8–15 minutes d. Tests of platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Description : Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A ... platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Tests of platelet function include peripheral platelet counts, bleeding times, and platelet aggregation. Usually, a platelet count of 50,000/mL or more ensures adequate hemostasis ... is not available in most laboratories, probably because of the observer-dependent nature of the test

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 100,000) is seen in less than 10% of patients treated with heparin c. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia is due to the aggregation of platelets and may result in thrombosis or embolic episodes d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. ... d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs in 0.6% to 30% of patients who receive heparin, although severe thrombocytopenia (platelet counts less than 100,000) is seen in ... as coating on pulmonary artery catheters or low rate infusion into arterial catheters may cause this syndrome

Which of the following statement(s) concerning laboratory studies used in monitoring a patient with intravenous heparinization is/are correct? a. The platelet count should be followed because of the risk of heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. The prothrombin time should be observed if prolonged treatment is necessary c. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be maintained at approximately 1.5 times normal d. The serum creatinine should be measured daily to allow adjustments in dose based on renal function

Description : Which of the following statement(s) concerning laboratory studies used in monitoring a patient with intravenous heparinization is/are correct? a. The platelet count should be followed because of the ... serum creatinine should be measured daily to allow adjustments in dose based on renal function

Last Answer : Answer: a, c In monitoring the effect of heparin, an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 1.5 control or a thrombin clotting time (TCT) of 2 times control reflects adequate ... system. Therefore the dose of heparin need not be adjusted in cases of liver or renal dysfunction

Which of the following cell types are not crucial for healing a clean, incisional wound? A. Macrophage. B. Platelet. C. Fibroblast. D. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte. E. Myofibroblast.

Description : Which of the following cell types are not crucial for healing a clean, incisional wound? A. Macrophage. B. Platelet. C. Fibroblast. D. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte. E. Myofibroblast.

Last Answer : Answer: DE DISCUSSION: Experimental studies have shown that healing may progress normally in the absence of polymorphonuclear leukocytes in an uninfected wound. In contrast, depletion of monocytes and ... wound contraction in open defects but have little if any role in clean, incisional wounds

Platelets have a wide array of functions in inflammation. Which of the following are among these? a. Synthesis and release of vasoactive eicosanoids b. Release of chemotactic factors c. Adherence to and coating of bacterial and tumor cells d. Increase of vascular permeability e. Phagocytosis of bacteria

Description : Platelets have a wide array of functions in inflammation. Which of the following are among these? a. Synthesis and release of vasoactive eicosanoids b. Release of chemotactic factors c. ... coating of bacterial and tumor cells d. Increase of vascular permeability e. Phagocytosis of bacteria

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Platelets are anucleated cells derived from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow. Their central role in hemostasis is well known. Platelets possess a wide ... primitive precursor inflammatory cell. Platelets serve primarily as an amplifier or modulator of the inflammatory response

A 65-year old patient has colon carcinoma metastatic to the liver and lungs. He has had a weight loss of 10 kg. Cytokine-dependent tumor cachexia is attributable to which of the following? a. Increased glucose uptake and increased glycogen breakdown occur in this circumstance. b. Suppressed activity of lipoprotein lipase results from TNFa c. TNFa stimulates lipolysis d. The differentiation process of pre-adipocytes is impaired e. Partial reversal of differentiated adipocytes to pre-adipocyte morphology and gene expression occurs

Description : A 65-year old patient has colon carcinoma metastatic to the liver and lungs. He has had a weight loss of 10 kg. Cytokine-dependent tumor cachexia is attributable to which of the ... is impaired e. Partial reversal of differentiated adipocytes to pre-adipocyte morphology and gene expression occurs

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d, e Tumor cachexia appears to be mediated by TNFa. Lipopolysaccharide (LPS), as well as other cytokines, activate a variety of inflammatory cells, most ... chronic syndromes of anorexia, weight loss, and cachexia that are associated with both chronic infection and malignancy

In patients with chronic granulomatous disease which of the following agents increases the synthesis of tumor necrosis factor, leading to activation of phagocytosis? (a) Aldesleukin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Filgrastim (d) Infliximab (e) Interferon gamma

Description : In patients with chronic granulomatous disease which of the following agents increases the synthesis of tumor necrosis factor, leading to activation of phagocytosis? (a) Aldesleukin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Filgrastim (d) Infliximab (e) Interferon gamma

Last Answer : Ans: E

Cylcoocygenase-II specific inhibitors block the following (a) Production of cytoprotective prostaglandins (b) Tumor necrosis factor - a (c) Production of prostaglandins responsible for pain and inflammation

Description : Cylcoocygenase-II specific inhibitors block the following (a) Production of cytoprotective prostaglandins (b) Tumor necrosis factor - a (c) Production of prostaglandins responsible for pain and inflammation

Last Answer : Ans: C

Bacterial opsonization is mediated by? C A. histamine B. prostaglandin C. immunoglobulins D. tumor Necrosis Factor

Description : Bacterial opsonization is mediated by? C A. histamine B. prostaglandin C. immunoglobulins D. tumor Necrosis Factor

Last Answer : immunoglobulins

Which of the following statements regarding the complement system are true? a. Complement activation yields products which are directly cytotoxic as well as products which act indirectly via activated leukocytes b. Complement products referred to as anaphylatoxins include C1, C3a, C4a, and C5a c. The principal role of C5a is in bacterial opsonization d. The alternative and classical pathways converge proximal to generating the membrane attack complex (C5b-9)

Description : Which of the following statements regarding the complement system are true? a. Complement activation yields products which are directly cytotoxic as well as products which act indirectly via activated ... and classical pathways converge proximal to generating the membrane attack complex (C5b-9)

Last Answer : Answer: a, d The complement system is composed of two different but linked sequences, the classic and alternative pathways. The pathways involve serum proteins that act to amplify the inflammatory-immune ... the C5 level proximal to generating the membrane attack complex (C5b-9) (Figure 6-3)

Which of the following statements regarding fibroblasts and their function in wound healing are true? a. IL-1 has both inhibitory and promotional effects on fibroblast growth b. TNFa stimulates fibroblast collagen synthesis c. IL-1 and TNFa have opposite effects on the healing of bone d. In human clinical trials, EGF (epithelial growth factor) has been demonstrated to accelerate epidermal regeneration in cutaneous wounds

Description : Which of the following statements regarding fibroblasts and their function in wound healing are true? a. IL-1 has both inhibitory and promotional effects on fibroblast growth b. TNFa ... EGF (epithelial growth factor) has been demonstrated to accelerate epidermal regeneration in cutaneous wounds

Last Answer : Answer: a, d IL-1 appears to be important in the process of normal wound repair. IL-1 has been shown to stimulate skin fibroblast and keratinocyte growth, as well as ... that recombinant EGF enhances keratinocyte migration. EGF is also a potent chemoattractant for granulation tissue fibroblasts

Answer: a, b, c, d Free oxygen radicals are chemical species that are intermediates in the normal process of cellular respiration. Oxidants that are free radicals have been implicated as initiators of reactions which lead to a variety of cellular injuries. Oxidants are derived from several sources, notably phagocytes. Among the effects of oxygen free radicals are membrane lipid peroxidation, DNA strand breaks, cytoskeletal disassembly and inhibition of glucose metabolism leading to decreased cellular ATP concentrations. (Figure 6-16) 187 Which of the following acute-phase protein levels are increased in human plasma following acute inflammation? a. C-reactive protein b. Serum amyloid c. a -Proteinase inhibitor d. Fibrinogen e. Albumin

Description : Answer: a, b, c, d Free oxygen radicals are chemical species that are intermediates in the normal process of cellular respiration. Oxidants that are free radicals have been implicated as initiators of ... a. C-reactive protein b. Serum amyloid c. a -Proteinase inhibitor d. Fibrinogen e. Albumin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The acute-phase response is a series of homeostatic responses of the organism to tissue injury in infection and inflammation. After an inflammatory stimulus occurs, a number ... 30% to 50% of the level before injury. The reason for the decrease in production is poorly understood

Which of the following is/are true concerning wound fibroblasts? A. Fibroblasts synthesize and secrete collagen molecules. B. Wound fibroblasts are derived from blood-borne precursor cells. C. Fibroblasts migrate to a wound along fibrin strands, which are used as a scaffold. D. Large amounts of fibrin or blood clot can act as a physical barrier to fibroblast penetration, which delays normal wound healing.

Description : Which of the following is/are true concerning wound fibroblasts? A. Fibroblasts synthesize and secrete collagen molecules. B. Wound fibroblasts are derived from blood-borne precursor cells. C. ... clot can act as a physical barrier to fibroblast penetration, which delays normal wound healing.

Last Answer : Answer: ACD DISCUSSION: Fibroblasts appear in the wound on about the third day of healing and begin to synthesize and secrete collagen molecules. Wound fibroblasts arrive from cells surrounding ... enzymes, and large amounts of fibrin and blood clot prevent fibroblasts from entering the wound

Phases of multiorgan failure will include: a. Generalized increased capillary permeability b. A hypermetabolic state c. Organ malfunction d. All of the above

Description : Phases of multiorgan failure will include: a. Generalized increased capillary permeability b. A hypermetabolic state c. Organ malfunction d. All of the above

Last Answer : Answer: d Clinically the multiple-organ failure patient progresses through well-defined phases. These phases include: Phase 1-a generalized increased capillary permeability resulting in edema, weight gain, ... tissue damage in the lung or brain, the death of the entire organ is likely

Useful steps to optimize systemic oxygen delivery include: a. Maintaining mean arterial blood pressure between 50 and 90 mm Hg b. Optimizing PEEP levels by monitoring mixed venous saturation c. Turning the patient prone d. Sedation or paralysis

Description : Useful steps to optimize systemic oxygen delivery include: a. Maintaining mean arterial blood pressure between 50 and 90 mm Hg b. Optimizing PEEP levels by monitoring mixed venous saturation c. Turning the patient prone d. Sedation or paralysis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Optimizing systemic oxygen delivery in relationship to oxygen requirement is the primary goal of management. Improving oxygenation of the blood itself by ... sedation, and establishing muscular paralysis decrease oxygen consumption, and decrease the need for oxygen delivery

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hypoadrenal shock? a. In the United States, idiopathic adrenal atrophy (Addison’s disease) is the most common cause b. Laboratory abnormalities include hyponatremia, hypochloremia, and hyperkalemia c. Fever may be seen with hypoadrenal shock d. ACTH stimulation test is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm hypoadrenal shock

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hypoadrenal shock? a. In the United States, idiopathic adrenal atrophy (Addison's disease) is the most common cause b. Laboratory ... hypoadrenal shock d. ACTH stimulation test is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm hypoadrenal shock

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Shock of a dramatic nature, poorly responsive to resuscitation, may develop as a consequence of adrenal insufficiency. In this country, adrenal insufficiency most ... of an ACTH stimulation test. A significant major cortisol response should be elicited by ACTH administration

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The pulmonary edema of ARDS occurs in the face of elevated left heart pressures c. The initial physiologic changes of ARDS involve the capillary endothelial cells and the type I pneumocyte d. Mechanisms proposed in the pathogenesis of ARDS include injury from mediators of inflammation elsewhere and from activated cellular elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The ... elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Last Answer : Answer: c, d, e Contributing pathophysiologic processes to the pulmonary manifestations of shock include the pulmonary component of the cardiovascular response, disruption of the normal ... injury from mediators of inflammation elaborated elsewhere, and from activated cellular blood elements

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive hemodynamic monitoring and fluid resuscitation b. Recent series have noted a decrease in the incidence of this condition c. Predisposing factors include old age, malnutrition, and immunosuppression d. Pseudomonas bacteremia is the most common cause of gram-negative sepsis e. Polymicrobial sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive ... sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Last Answer : Answer: c, e Gram-negative bacterial sepsis is a serious disease process that produces substantial morbidity and mortality in both normal and immunocompromised patients (10% to 20% and ... and most investigators agree that polymicrobial sepsis is more lethal than infection with a single organism

The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient c. A minimum of two weeks of antibiotic therapy is indicated d. The addition of appropriate antibiotic therapy has made surgical therapy unnecessary in such cases e. Either a single agent or combination therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

Description : The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient ... therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

Last Answer : Answer: a, e The primary treatment for a perforated viscus is surgical, however antimicrobial therapy is an extremely important adjunct. Empiric antibiotic therapy for secondary ... whereas longer periods are indicated for immunosuppressed patients and with patients with extensive contamination

New treatment modalities designed to modulate host defense mechanisms that have been demonstrated conclusively to be of benefit include: a. Gut decontamination b. Anti-LPS antibody c. Anti-TNF antibody d. Thymopentin e. None of the above

Description : New treatment modalities designed to modulate host defense mechanisms that have been demonstrated conclusively to be of benefit include: a. Gut decontamination b. Anti-LPS antibody c. Anti-TNF antibody d. Thymopentin e. None of the above

Last Answer : Answer: e Selective gut decontamination involves the use of orally administered antibiotics that achieve a high intraluminal level directed against gram-negative aerobes and yeast, leaving ... but conclusive evidence that concurrent reduction of infection-related mortality occurs is not available

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus b. Viral infections occur at equal frequency anytime during the post-transplantation period c. CMV infection in the post-transplant patient is most likely a pulmonary process d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus ... HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, Solid organ transplant patients are prone to develop viral infection by virtue of exogenous immunosuppression. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are those ... transplant patient or as painful herpes zoster in patients who have previously developed chicken pox

Wounds are classified according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound classifications? a. A clean-contaminated wound would be that associated with an elective colon resection with adequate mechanical and antibiotic bowel preparation b. A contaminated wound would include a resection of obstructed bowel with gross spillage of intestinal contents c. In a clean wound, no viscus is entered d. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be administered for all clean-contaminated and contaminated wounds and selectively in patients involving a clean wound

Description : Wounds are classified according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound classifications? a. A clean-contaminated wound would ... all clean-contaminated and contaminated wounds and selectively in patients involving a clean wound

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Wounds are classified under three classes according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination: 1) clean (no viscus is entered; e.g., herniorrhaphy); 2) clean- ... tenet involves cases in which a prosthetic material may be used (artificial joint, heart valve, tissue patch)

The use of prophylactic antibiotics has become commonplace. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the prophylactic use of antibiotics? a. The appropriate use of prophylactic antibiotics must include the initiation of the agent prior to the surgical procedure b. Continuing the antibiotic into the postoperative period has led to improved results in antibiotic prophylaxis c. The prophylactic administration of broad-spectrum agents (third-generation cephalosporins) has been shown to be particularly advantageous d. The topical use of antimicrobial agents is of no advantage in the prophylactic setting

Description : The use of prophylactic antibiotics has become commonplace. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the prophylactic use of antibiotics? a. The appropriate use of prophylactic ... d. The topical use of antimicrobial agents is of no advantage in the prophylactic setting

Last Answer : Answer: a Intravenous administration of an antibiotic is clearly indicated for patients undergoing clean contaminated operations. These antibiotics should be administered prior to surgery ... of antimicrobial agents is equivalent to the administration of intravenous antimicrobial agent antibiotics

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for both antigen and antibody detection b. Southern, northern, and western immunoblot techniques are used to detect DNA, RNA, or proteins, respectively c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a sensitive assay used to detect small amounts of microbial DNA, thus detecting infection at its early stages d. Infectious agents currently detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for ... detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Although the classic detection of infection based on clinical signs of infection and bacterial culture remain the most common clinical tools, increasing ... including CMV and HIV. Furthermore, preliminary investigations into possible detection of fungal pathogens are underway

Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules for release after receptor mediated signaling b. Eicosanoids include prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins c. Eicosanoids generally have a plasma half-life measured in hours d. Physiologic responses to eicosanoids include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Description : Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules ... include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Last Answer : Answer: b, d The eicosanoids are derived from arachidonic acid (eicosatetraenoic acid) and consist of prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins. The eicosanoids are not ... nervous system d. Mononuclear phagocytes release a variety of proinflammatory cytokines and growth factors