Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)?

Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)?
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DefinitionParoxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) is an occasional rapid heart rate. "Paroxysmal" means from time to time.Alternative NamesPSVT; Supraventricular tachycardiaCauses, incidence, and risk factorsNormally, the chambers of the heart (atria and ventricles) contract in a coordinated manner. The contractions are caused by an electrical signal that begins in an area of the heart called the sinoatrial node (also called the sinus node or SA node). The signal moves through the upper heart chambers (the atria) and tells the atria to contract.PSVT starts with events taking place above the lower heart chambers (ventricles). PSVT can be initiated in the SA node, in the upper heart chambers (atria), in the atrial conduction pathways, or other areas.PSVT can occur with digitalis toxic
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Which of the following drugs is preferred for termination of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (a) Digoxin (b) Quinidine (c) Propranolol (d) Verapamil

Description : Which of the following drugs is preferred for termination of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (a) Digoxin (b) Quinidine (c) Propranolol (d) Verapamil

Last Answer : Ans: D

Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients with low blood pressure C. Its action lasts less than 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect

The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine

Description : The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine

Last Answer : B. Verapami

ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Description : ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles

Why does supraventricular tachycardia occur?

Description : Why does supraventricular tachycardia occur?

Last Answer : The best way to find out information how it is developed is to go to a Doctor Who can diagnose the problem. Self diagnosis is not always accurate and you need to be sure.

What is the best treatment for supraventricular tachycardia?

Description : What is the best treatment for supraventricular tachycardia?

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A 16-year-old-girl is found to have paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate. The antiarrhythmic of choice in most cases of acute AV nodal tachycardia is (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Flecainide (d) Propranolol (e) Quinidine

Description : A 16-year-old-girl is found to have paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate. The antiarrhythmic of choice in most cases of acute AV nodal tachycardia is (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Flecainide (d) Propranolol (e) Quinidine

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia. b) Sinus tachycardia Sinus tachycardia occurs when the sinus node regularly creates an impulse at a faster-than-normal rate. c) Atrial flutter Atrial flutter occurs in the atrium and creates an atrial rate between 250-400 times per minute. d) Atrial fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT ... fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

Last Answer : a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia.

The following drug terminates paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia rapidly, but cannot be used to prevent its recurrences: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Propranolol D. Digoxin

Description : The following drug terminates paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia rapidly, but cannot be used to prevent its recurrences: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Propranolol D. Digoxin

Last Answer : B. Adenosine

Which of the following drugs is a class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias? (a) Lbutilide (b) Mexiletine (c) Diltiazem (d) Quinidine (e) Propranolol

Description : Which of the following drugs is a class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias? (a) Lbutilide (b) Mexiletine (c) Diltiazem (d) Quinidine (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: C

Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) Relaxes vascular smooth muscle (d) Slows the depolarization phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias

Description : Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) ... phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias

Last Answer : Ans: B

Have you dealt with Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)?

Description : Have you dealt with Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)?

Last Answer : answer:I haven't had BPPV but I've had labyrinthitus twice with extreme dizziness. The first time it lasted about 36 hours; the second time was shorter. Antivert really helped me; I try to always ... but it should really help. That's scary and upsetting @jonsblond. I hope you're feeling better soon.

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?

Description : Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?

Last Answer : DefinitionParoxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is a rare disease in which red blood cells break down earlier than normal.Alternative NamesPNHCauses, incidence, and risk factorsPersons with this disease have blood cells that ... disease can affect people of any age. It may lead to aplastic anemia, m

Nursing management of the patient with acute symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo includes which of the following? a) Bed rest Bed rest is recommended for patients with acute symptoms. Canalith repositioning procedures (CRP) may be used to provide resolution of vertigo, and patients with acute vertigo may be medicated with meclizine for 1-2 weeks.

Description : Nursing management of the patient with acute symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo includes which of the following? a) Bed rest Bed rest is recommended for patients with acute symptoms. ... -Hallpike procedure. The Dix-Hallpike test is an assessment test used to evaluate for BPPV.

Last Answer : a) Bed rest Bed rest is recommended for patients with acute symptoms. Canalith repositioning procedures (CRP) may be used to provide resolution of vertigo, and patients with acute vertigo may be medicated with meclizine for 1-2 weeks.

Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the position of the patient’s head is changed with respect to gravity. The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.

Description : Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. ... as acetaminophen. BPPV is frequently stimulated by head trauma, infection, or other events.

Last Answer : a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the ... vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.

A 37 years-old patient presents with paroxysmal pain on the left eye that he thinks is related to his maxillary posterior teeth. The pain comes in recurrent bursts and is aggravated by stress and alcohol. Oral exam is negative. The probable diagnosis is: A. Migraine B. Cluster headache C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Temporal neuritis

Description : A 37 years-old patient presents with paroxysmal pain on the left eye that he thinks is related to his maxillary posterior teeth. The pain comes in recurrent bursts and is aggravated by stress and ... diagnosis is: A. Migraine B. Cluster headache C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Temporal neuritis

Last Answer : B. Cluster headache

Which of the following is NOT CHARACTERISTIC of trigeminal neuralgia?** A. The pain usually last for few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of the disease B. The pain is usually unilateral C. Patient characteristically have sites on the skin that when stimulated precipitate an attack of pain D. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead E. It is a paroxysmal in nature and may respond to the treatment with Carbamazepine

Description : Which of the following is NOT CHARACTERISTIC of trigeminal neuralgia?** A. The pain usually last for few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of the disease B. The pain is usually ... of the forehead E. It is a paroxysmal in nature and may respond to the treatment with Carbamazepine

Last Answer : D. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead

Can dehydration cause tachycardia?

Description : Can dehydration cause tachycardia?

Last Answer : Yes. You can read the symptoms here

Tachycardia is `:-`

Description : Tachycardia is `:-`

Last Answer : Tachycardia is `:-` A. Fast heart rate B. Slow heart rate C. Stop heart rate D. Normal heart rate

What is tachycardia enlargement?

Description : What is tachycardia enlargement?

Last Answer : symptom of Heart disease

Ventricular tachycardia?

Description : Ventricular tachycardia?

Last Answer : DefinitionVentricular tachycardia (VT) is a rapid heartbeat that starts in the ventricles.Alternative NamesWide-complex tachycardia; V tach; Tachycardia - ventricularCauses, incidence, and risk ... .Ventricular tachycardia can also be caused by:Anti-arrhythmic medicationsChanges in blood che

What exactly is atrial tachycardia?

Description : What exactly is atrial tachycardia?

Last Answer : Atrial tachycardia is a rhythm disturbance that arises in the atria. Atrial tachycardia can be observed in persons with normal hearts. for more information medicine.medscape.com/article/151456-overview

What is atrial tachycardia and how do you treat it?

Description : What is atrial tachycardia and how do you treat it?

Last Answer : Atrial tachycardia is a condition of the heart. This website provides some quick information that should be helpful for you: http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/151456-treatment

What is the best treatment for ventricular tachycardia?

Description : What is the best treatment for ventricular tachycardia?

Last Answer : The mainstays of treatment for clinically stable ventricular tachycardia are the various antidysrhythmic drugs. These are limited to procainamide, lidocaine, amiodarone, and a handful of intravenous beta-adrenergic blocking agents.

How can I tell if I have ventricular tachycardia?

Description : How can I tell if I have ventricular tachycardia?

Last Answer : There are certain symptoms of ventricular tachycardia that can help physicians diagnose it including palpitations and dizziness. You should see a doctor.

All the following may occur in myxoedema except (A) Cold intolerance (B) Low BMR (C) Tachycardia (D) Dry and coarse skin

Description : All the following may occur in myxoedema except (A) Cold intolerance (B) Low BMR (C) Tachycardia (D) Dry and coarse skin

Last Answer : Answer : C

Clinical features of hyperthyroidism include (A) Goitre, heat intolerance, weight loss and tachycardia (B) Goitre, tremors, tachycardia and cold intolerance (C) Exophthalmos, goiter, tachycardia and loss of appetite (D) Exophthalmos, goiter, tremors and obesity

Description : Clinical features of hyperthyroidism include (A) Goitre, heat intolerance, weight loss and tachycardia (B) Goitre, tremors, tachycardia and cold intolerance (C) Exophthalmos, goiter, tachycardia and loss of appetite (D) Exophthalmos, goiter, tremors and obesity

Last Answer : Answer : A

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5–10 rules out fluid overload as a cause of pulmonary edema b. A shift to the right in the Frank-Starling curve is associated with compromised cardiac function c. Dilutional anemia may contribute to tachycardia even though blood volume and filling pressures are normal d. The sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5-10 rules out ... sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Although physical findings are often adequate to establish a diagnosis and institute management of cardiac failure, direct measurement of filling pressures of the right heart ( ... blood volume is normal, filling pressures are normal, and total body extracellular fluid is excessive

A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He is agitated and complains of shortness of breath. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct concerning his diagnosis and management? a. Myocardial ischemia secondary to preexisting coronary artery disease is most likely the underlying cause of this problem b. Invasive hemodynamic monitoring with a Swan-Gantz catheter will demonstrate a low cardiac output, a high systemic vascular resistance, and elevated cardiac filling pressures c. The use of morphine sulphate and nitrates should be part of the initial management d. The primary pharmacologic treatment involves the use of moderate doses of inotropic ag

Description : A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He ... use of moderate doses of inotropic agents e. Afterload reduction with nitroprusside is absolutely contraindicated

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Intrinsic cardiogenic shock results from failure of the heart as an effective pump. Coronary artery disease is the most common cause of myocardial ... hemodynamic monitoring. Infusion of afterload-reducing agents can be administered in conjunction with inotropic support

Which of the following physical findings are associated with the various classes of hemorrhagic shock? a. Mild shock (< 20% blood volume): Pallor, cool extremities, diminished capillary refill and diaphoresis b. Moderate shock (20%–40% blood volume): All of the above plus tachycardia and hypotension c. Severe shock (> 40% blood volume): Systemic hypotension, changes in mental status, tachycardia, oliguria d. All of the above

Description : Which of the following physical findings are associated with the various classes of hemorrhagic shock? a. Mild shock (< 20% blood volume): Pallor, cool extremities, diminished capillary refill and ... ): Systemic hypotension, changes in mental status, tachycardia, oliguria d. All of the above

Last Answer : Answer: a, c PHYSICAL FINDINGS IN HEMORRHAGIC SHOCK* Moderate Mild (40% Blood Volume) Blood Volume) Blood Volume) Pallor Pallor Pallor Cool extremities Cool extremities Cool extremities ... hypotension Mental status changes * Alcohol or drug intoxication may alter physical findings

Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available hematocrit or hemoglobin determination. B. Symptomatic anemia: orthostatic hypotension, severe tachycardia (greater than 120 beats per minute), evidence of myocardial ischemia, including angina. C. To increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.

Description : Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available ... increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.

Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Currently accepted guidelines for the transfusion of packed red blood cells include acute ongoing blood loss, as might occur in an injured patient, and the development of ... not be given based solely or predominantly on a numerical value such as a hematocrit of 28%

All of the following are true about neurogenic shock except: A. There is a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and an increase in venous capacitance. B. Tachycardia or bradycardia may be observed, along with hypotension. C. The use of an alpha agonist such as phenylephrine is the mainstay of treatment. D. Severe head injury, spinal cord injury, and high spinal anesthesia may all cause neurogenic shock.

Description : All of the following are true about neurogenic shock except: A. There is a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and an increase in venous capacitance. B. Tachycardia or bradycardia may be ... Severe head injury, spinal cord injury, and high spinal anesthesia may all cause neurogenic shock.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Neurogenic shock occurs when severe head injury, spinal cord injury, or pharmacologic sympathetic blockade leads to sympathetic denervation and loss of vasomotor tone. ... of treatment. The use of alpha-adrenergic agonist is infrequently necessary to treat neurogenic shock

Dobutamine differs from dopamine in that (a) It does not activate peripheral dopaminergic receptors (b) It does not activate adrenergic ß receptors (c) It causes pronounced tachycardia (d) It has good blood-brain barrier penetrability

Description : Dobutamine differs from dopamine in that (a) It does not activate peripheral dopaminergic receptors (b) It does not activate adrenergic ß receptors (c) It causes pronounced tachycardia (d) It has good blood-brain barrier penetrability

Last Answer : Ans: A

A patient has been taking digoxin for several years for chronic heart failure is about to receive atropine for another condition. A common effect of digoxin (at therapeutic blood levels) that can be almost entirely blocked by atropine is (a) Decreased appetite (b) Increased atrial contractility (c) Increased PR interval on the ECG (d) Headaches (e) Tachycardia

Description : A patient has been taking digoxin for several years for chronic heart failure is about to receive atropine for another condition. A common effect of digoxin (at therapeutic blood levels) that can ... Increased atrial contractility (c) Increased PR interval on the ECG (d) Headaches (e) Tachycardia

Last Answer : Ans: C

The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate

Description : The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate

Last Answer : Ans: A

A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked) and increased hair growth. Which of the following is most likely to produce the effects that your friend has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol

Description : A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked ... has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine? (a) Decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethonium (b) Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine (c) Increased skeleton muscle strength caused by neostigmine (d) Tachycardia caused by exercise (e) Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine

Description : Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine? (a) Decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethonium (b) Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine (c) Increased skeleton muscle ... by neostigmine (d) Tachycardia caused by exercise (e) Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine

Last Answer : Ans: E

Full activation of the sympathetic nervous system, as in maximal exercise, can produce all of the following responses except (a) Bronchial relaxation (b) Decreases intestinal motility (c) Increased renal blood flow (d) Mydriasis (e) Increased heart rate (tachycardia)

Description : Full activation of the sympathetic nervous system, as in maximal exercise, can produce all of the following responses except (a) Bronchial relaxation (b) Decreases intestinal motility (c) Increased renal blood flow (d) Mydriasis (e) Increased heart rate (tachycardia)

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which of the following antianginal drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect ? (a) Amlodipine (b) Nifedipine (c) Diltiazem (d) Verapamil

Description : Which of the following antianginal drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect ? (a) Amlodipine (b) Nifedipine (c) Diltiazem (d) Verapamil

Last Answer : Ans: B

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b) and (c) Ans: D 68. In heart, potassium channels determine (a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b ... a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Quinidine is now used primarily for (a) Conversion of auricular fibrillation to sinus rhythm (b) Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter (c) Termination of ventricular tachycardia (d) Prevention of recurrences of atrial and ventricular extrasystoles/tachycardias

Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for (a) Conversion of auricular fibrillation to sinus rhythm (b) Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter (c) Termination of ventricular tachycardia (d) Prevention of recurrences of atrial and ventricular extrasystoles/tachycardias

Last Answer : Ans: D

Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : Ans: C

Drugs used in asthma that often cause tachycardia and tremor include (a) Beclomethasone (b) Cromolyn sodium (c) Ipratropium (d) Metaproterenol (e) All of the above

Description : Drugs used in asthma that often cause tachycardia and tremor include (a) Beclomethasone (b) Cromolyn sodium (c) Ipratropium (d) Metaproterenol (e) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Signs of low perfusion include all except A. hypotension B. tachycardia C. High Urine Output D. Poor Capillary refill

Description : Signs of low perfusion include all except A. hypotension B. tachycardia C. High Urine Output D. Poor Capillary refill

Last Answer : Ans: C

Succinylcholine can produce all except A) Induce malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients B) Prolonged paralysis occurs in case of butyrylcholinesterase abnormalities (as succinylcholine is not metabolized) C) Tachycardia, particularly in children D) Increase intraocular pressure

Description : Succinylcholine can produce all except A) Induce malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients B) Prolonged paralysis occurs in case of butyrylcholinesterase abnormalities (as succinylcholine is not metabolized) C) Tachycardia, particularly in children D) Increase intraocular pressure

Last Answer : Ans: C

Tachycardia is a condition characterized by (1) heart-rate decreases from the normal (2) heart- rate increases from the normal (3) heart-beat stops (4) heart fails to pump

Description : Tachycardia is a condition characterized by (1) heart-rate decreases from the normal (2) heart- rate increases from the normal (3) heart-beat stops (4) heart fails to pump

Last Answer : (2) heart- rate increases from the normal Explanation: Tachycardia is a heart rate that exceeds the nor-mal resting rate. In general, a resting heart rate over 100 beats per minute is ... a person is at rest. Tachycardia occurs when an abnormality in the heart produces rapid electrical signals.

Stimulation of the beta receptors give rise to: a. tachycardia b. increased myocardial contraction c. vasoconstriction of visceral vessels d. pupil dilatation

Description : Stimulation of the beta receptors give rise to: a. tachycardia b. increased myocardial contraction c. vasoconstriction of visceral vessels d. pupil dilatation

Last Answer : increased myocardial contraction

Which of the following adrenergic inhibitors acts directly on the blood vessels, producing vasodilation? a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting directly on the blood vessel. It is not used in angina and coronary artery disease, however, because it induces tachycardia if not preceded by administration of propranolol and a diuretic.

Description : Which of the following adrenergic inhibitors acts directly on the blood vessels, producing vasodilation? a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting ... through centrally mediated alpha-adrenergic stimulation in the brain, producing blood pressure reduction.

Last Answer : a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting directly on the blood vessel. It is not used in angina and coronary artery disease, however, because it induces tachycardia if not preceded by administration of propranolol and a diuretic.

Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT). b) occur during the QRS complex. PVCs are dangerous when they occur on the T wave. c) have the same shape. PVCs are dangerous when they are multifocal (have different shapes). d) are paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Description : Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they ... paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Last Answer : a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT).