A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked) and increased hair growth. Which of the following is most likely to produce the effects that your friend has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol

A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked) and increased hair growth. Which of the following is most likely to produce the effects that your friend has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol
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A visitor from another city comes to your office complaining of incessant cough. He has diabetes and hypertension and has recently started taking a different antihypertensive medication. The most likely cause of his cough is (a) Enalapril (b) Losartan (c) Minoxidil (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil

Description : A visitor from another city comes to your office complaining of incessant cough. He has diabetes and hypertension and has recently started taking a different antihypertensive medication. The most likely cause of his cough is (a) Enalapril (b) Losartan (c) Minoxidil (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil

Last Answer : Ans: A

A 70-year-old man has severe urinary hesitancy associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia. He has tried alpha blockers with little relief. His physician recommends a drug that blocks 5a - reductase in the prostate and writes a prescription for (a) Atropine (b) Clonidine (c) Hydralazine (d) Neostigmine (e) Propranolol

Description : A 70-year-old man has severe urinary hesitancy associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia. He has tried alpha blockers with little relief. His physician recommends a drug that blocks 5a - reductase in ... prescription for (a) Atropine (b) Clonidine (c) Hydralazine (d) Neostigmine (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: B

The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate

Description : The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate

Last Answer : Ans: A

A 16-year-old-girl is found to have paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate. The antiarrhythmic of choice in most cases of acute AV nodal tachycardia is (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Flecainide (d) Propranolol (e) Quinidine

Description : A 16-year-old-girl is found to have paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate. The antiarrhythmic of choice in most cases of acute AV nodal tachycardia is (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Flecainide (d) Propranolol (e) Quinidine

Last Answer : Ans: A

A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril

Description : A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril

Last Answer : B. Methyldopa

Propranolol is useful in all of the following except (a) Angina (b) Familial tremor (c) Hypertension (d) Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic cardiomyopathy (e) Partial atrioverntricular heart block

Description : Propranolol is useful in all of the following except (a) Angina (b) Familial tremor (c) Hypertension (d) Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic cardiomyopathy (e) Partial atrioverntricular heart block

Last Answer : Ans: E

Full activation of the sympathetic nervous system, as in maximal exercise, can produce all of the following responses except (a) Bronchial relaxation (b) Decreases intestinal motility (c) Increased renal blood flow (d) Mydriasis (e) Increased heart rate (tachycardia)

Description : Full activation of the sympathetic nervous system, as in maximal exercise, can produce all of the following responses except (a) Bronchial relaxation (b) Decreases intestinal motility (c) Increased renal blood flow (d) Mydriasis (e) Increased heart rate (tachycardia)

Last Answer : Ans: C

Guanethidine inhibits (a) Synthesis of transmitter (b) Metabolism of transmitter (c) Release of transmitter (d) Displacement of transmitter from axonal terminal

Description : Guanethidine inhibits (a) Synthesis of transmitter (b) Metabolism of transmitter (c) Release of transmitter (d) Displacement of transmitter from axonal terminal

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which of the following is a vasodilator drug used for hypertension that lacks a direct effect on autonomic receptors but may provoke anginal attacks? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine

Description : Which of the following is a vasodilator drug used for hypertension that lacks a direct effect on autonomic receptors but may provoke anginal attacks? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine

Last Answer : Ans: B

A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Furosemide (d) Hydrochlorothiazide (e) Spironolactone

Description : A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Furosemide (d) Hydrochlorothiazide (e) Spironolactone

Last Answer : Ans: A

A patient has been taking digoxin for several years for chronic heart failure is about to receive atropine for another condition. A common effect of digoxin (at therapeutic blood levels) that can be almost entirely blocked by atropine is (a) Decreased appetite (b) Increased atrial contractility (c) Increased PR interval on the ECG (d) Headaches (e) Tachycardia

Description : A patient has been taking digoxin for several years for chronic heart failure is about to receive atropine for another condition. A common effect of digoxin (at therapeutic blood levels) that can ... Increased atrial contractility (c) Increased PR interval on the ECG (d) Headaches (e) Tachycardia

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine? (a) Decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethonium (b) Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine (c) Increased skeleton muscle strength caused by neostigmine (d) Tachycardia caused by exercise (e) Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine

Description : Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine? (a) Decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethonium (b) Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine (c) Increased skeleton muscle ... by neostigmine (d) Tachycardia caused by exercise (e) Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine

Last Answer : Ans: E

In a patient given a cardiac glycoside, important effects of the drug on the heart include which of the following? (a) Decreased atrioventricular conduction velocity (b) Decreased ejection time (c) Increased ectopic automaticity (d) Increased ectopic automaticity (e) All of the above

Description : In a patient given a cardiac glycoside, important effects of the drug on the heart include which of the following? (a) Decreased atrioventricular conduction velocity (b) Decreased ejection time (c) Increased ectopic automaticity (d) Increased ectopic automaticity (e) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: E

Which of the following adrenergic inhibitors acts directly on the blood vessels, producing vasodilation? a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting directly on the blood vessel. It is not used in angina and coronary artery disease, however, because it induces tachycardia if not preceded by administration of propranolol and a diuretic.

Description : Which of the following adrenergic inhibitors acts directly on the blood vessels, producing vasodilation? a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting ... through centrally mediated alpha-adrenergic stimulation in the brain, producing blood pressure reduction.

Last Answer : a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting directly on the blood vessel. It is not used in angina and coronary artery disease, however, because it induces tachycardia if not preceded by administration of propranolol and a diuretic.

Which of the following situations constitutes an added risk of digoxin toxicity ? (a) Starting administration of captopril (b) Starting administration of quinidine (c) Hyperkalemia (d) Hypermagnesemia (e) Hypocalcemia

Description : Which of the following situations constitutes an added risk of digoxin toxicity ? (a) Starting administration of captopril (b) Starting administration of quinidine (c) Hyperkalemia (d) Hypermagnesemia (e) Hypocalcemia

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which one of the following is characteristic of captopril and enalapril ? (a) Competitively blocks angiotensim II at its receptor (b) Decreases angiotensin II concentration in the blood (c) Decreases rennin concentration in the blood (d) Increases sodium and decreases potassium in the blood (e) Decreases sodium and increases potassium in the urine

Description : Which one of the following is characteristic of captopril and enalapril ? (a) Competitively blocks angiotensim II at its receptor (b) Decreases angiotensin II concentration in the blood (c) Decreases ... and decreases potassium in the blood (e) Decreases sodium and increases potassium in the urine

Last Answer : Ans: B

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective a adrenergic blockers are not because (a) It is the only orally active a blocker (b) It improves plasma lipid profile (c) It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release (d) It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective a adrenergic blockers are not because (a) It is the only orally active a blocker (b) It improves plasma lipid profile (c) It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release (d) It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : Ans: C

Reserprine, an alkaloid derived from the root of Rauwolfia serpentina (a) Can be used to control hyperglycemia (b) Can cause severe depression of mood (c) Can decrease gastrointestinal secretion and motility (d) Has no cardiac effects (e) A spare receptor agonist

Description : Reserprine, an alkaloid derived from the root of Rauwolfia serpentina (a) Can be used to control hyperglycemia (b) Can cause severe depression of mood (c) Can decrease gastrointestinal secretion and motility (d) Has no cardiac effects (e) A spare receptor agonist

Last Answer : Ans: B

Dobutamine differs from dopamine in that (a) It does not activate peripheral dopaminergic receptors (b) It does not activate adrenergic ß receptors (c) It causes pronounced tachycardia (d) It has good blood-brain barrier penetrability

Description : Dobutamine differs from dopamine in that (a) It does not activate peripheral dopaminergic receptors (b) It does not activate adrenergic ß receptors (c) It causes pronounced tachycardia (d) It has good blood-brain barrier penetrability

Last Answer : Ans: A

Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can precipitate angina: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Captopril D. Prazosin

Description : Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can precipitate angina: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Captopril D. Prazosin

Last Answer : B. Hydralazine

Loss of taste sensation can be a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Clonidine B. Captopril C. Verapamil D. Prazosin

Description : Loss of taste sensation can be a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Clonidine B. Captopril C. Verapamil D. Prazosin

Last Answer : B. Captopril

Propranolol does not block the following action of adrenaline (a) Bronchodilation (b) Lipolysis (c) Muscle tremor (d) Mydriasis

Description : Propranolol does not block the following action of adrenaline (a) Bronchodilation (b) Lipolysis (c) Muscle tremor (d) Mydriasis

Last Answer : Ans: D

Accepted therapeutic indications for the use of antimuscarinic drugs include all of the following except (a) Hypertension (b) Motion sickness (c) Parkinson’s disease (d) Postoperative bladder spasm (e) Traveler’s diarrhea

Description : Accepted therapeutic indications for the use of antimuscarinic drugs include all of the following except (a) Hypertension (b) Motion sickness (c) Parkinson’s disease (d) Postoperative bladder spasm (e) Traveler’s diarrhea

Last Answer : Ans: A

Nitroglycerin, either directly or through reflexes, results in which one of the following effects (a) Decreased heart rate (b) Decreased venous capacitance (c) Increased afterload (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased diastolic intramyocardial fiber tension

Description : Nitroglycerin, either directly or through reflexes, results in which one of the following effects (a) Decreased heart rate (b) Decreased venous capacitance (c) Increased afterload (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased diastolic intramyocardial fiber tension

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following drugs is the drug of choice in anaphylaxis associated with bronchospasm and hypotension ? (a) Cortisone (b) Epinephrine (c) Isoproterenol (d) Norepinephrine (e) Phenylephrine

Description : Which of the following drugs is the drug of choice in anaphylaxis associated with bronchospasm and hypotension ? (a) Cortisone (b) Epinephrine (c) Isoproterenol (d) Norepinephrine (e) Phenylephrine

Last Answer : Ans: B

Several children at a summer camp were hospitalized with symptoms thought to be due to ingestion of food containing botulinum toxins. The effects of botulinum toxin are likely to include (a) Bronchospasm (b) Cycloplegia (c) Diarrhea (d) Skeletal muscle spasms (e) Hyperventilation

Description : Several children at a summer camp were hospitalized with symptoms thought to be due to ingestion of food containing botulinum toxins. The effects of botulinum toxin are likely to include (a) Bronchospasm (b) Cycloplegia (c) Diarrhea (d) Skeletal muscle spasms (e) Hyperventilation

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the progression of diabetic nephropathy. C. Hypertension is associated with sodium retention in diabetes patients. D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should be used in all patients with chronic hyperglycemia, regardless of the presence of hypertension. E. Diuretics, as single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Description : Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the ... single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCDE DISCUSSION: All of the answers listed are correct. By damaging endothelial cells, hypertension worsens macrovascular disease in all patients but especially in diabetics. Hypertension ... is not indicated because the chronic state of dehydration in such patients may become worse

Which of the following is the drug of choice for management of cardiac arrhythmias that occur in digitalis toxicity? (a) Amiodarone (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Sotalol (e) Prazosin

Description : Which of the following is the drug of choice for management of cardiac arrhythmias that occur in digitalis toxicity? (a) Amiodarone (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Sotalol (e) Prazosin

Last Answer : Ans: B

The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide

Description : The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : A. Prazosin

Select the drug which can impair carbohydrate tolerance in prediabetics but prolongs insulin hypoglycaemia: A. Salbutamol B. Propranolol C. Prazosin D. Nifedipine

Description : Select the drug which can impair carbohydrate tolerance in prediabetics but prolongs insulin hypoglycaemia: A. Salbutamol B. Propranolol C. Prazosin D. Nifedipine

Last Answer : B. Propranolol

Select the drug which can impair carbohydrate tolerance in prediabetics but prolongs insulin hypoglycaemia: A. Salbutamol B. Propranolol C. Prazosin D. Nifedipine

Description : Select the drug which can impair carbohydrate tolerance in prediabetics but prolongs insulin hypoglycaemia: A. Salbutamol B. Propranolol C. Prazosin D. Nifedipine

Last Answer : B. Propranolol

Atropine overdose may cause which one of the following (a) Gastrointestinal smooth muscle crampine (b) Increased cardiac rate (c) Increased gastric secretion (d) Pupillary constriction (e) Urinary frequency

Description : Atropine overdose may cause which one of the following (a) Gastrointestinal smooth muscle crampine (b) Increased cardiac rate (c) Increased gastric secretion (d) Pupillary constriction (e) Urinary frequency

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following therapies would be most useful in the management of severe hypercalcemia? (a) Amiloride plus saline infusion (b) Furosemide plus saline infusion (c) Hydrochlorothiazide plus saline infusion (d) Mannitol plus saline infusion (e) Spironolactone plus saline infusion

Description : Which of the following therapies would be most useful in the management of severe hypercalcemia? (a) Amiloride plus saline infusion (b) Furosemide plus saline infusion (c) Hydrochlorothiazide plus saline infusion (d) Mannitol plus saline infusion (e) Spironolactone plus saline infusion

Last Answer : Ans: B

Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid excretion C. It causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Description : Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid ... causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following antihypertensive is used topically to treat alopacia areata: A. Hydralazine B. Prazosin C. Minoxidil D. Indapamide

Description : The following antihypertensive is used topically to treat alopacia areata: A. Hydralazine B. Prazosin C. Minoxidil D. Indapamide

Last Answer : C. Minoxidil

Which of the following is a steroid 5α-reductase inhibitor that has been found useful in benign prostatic hypertrophy and male pattern baldness: A. Flutamide B. Finasteride C. Prazosin D. Minoxidil

Description : Which of the following is a steroid 5α-reductase inhibitor that has been found useful in benign prostatic hypertrophy and male pattern baldness: A. Flutamide B. Finasteride C. Prazosin D. Minoxidil

Last Answer : B. Finasteride

Rebound hypertension on sudden stoppage of medication is most likely to occur with: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Prazosin C. Clonidine D. Lisinopri

Description : Rebound hypertension on sudden stoppage of medication is most likely to occur with: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Prazosin C. Clonidine D. Lisinopri

Last Answer : C. Clonidine

‘Rest and digest’ state can be described as (a) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic quiescent (b) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic active (c) Sympathetic quiescent; para-sympathetic active

Description : ‘Rest and digest’ state can be described as (a) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic quiescent (b) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic active (c) Sympathetic quiescent; para-sympathetic active

Last Answer : Ans: C

‘Fight or flight’ state can be described as (a) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic quiescent (b) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic active (c) Sympathetic quiescent; para-sympathetic active

Description : ‘Fight or flight’ state can be described as (a) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic quiescent (b) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic active (c) Sympathetic quiescent; para-sympathetic active

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following combinations of drugs, when used together, reduce both preload and afterload? (a) Nitroglycerin and isosorbide dinitrate (b) Hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate (c) Captopril and methyldopa (d) Prazosin and angiotension II (e) Hydralazine and methyldopa

Description : Which of the following combinations of drugs, when used together, reduce both preload and afterload? (a) Nitroglycerin and isosorbide dinitrate (b) Hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate (c) Captopril and methyldopa (d) Prazosin and angiotension II (e) Hydralazine and methyldopa

Last Answer : Ans: B

The most common complication after knee arthroscopy is a) joint effusion. Joint effusion produces marked pain, and the physician may need to aspirate the joint to remove fluid and relieve the pressure.

Description : The most common complication after knee arthroscopy is a) joint effusion. Joint effusion produces marked pain, and the physician may need to aspirate the joint to remove fluid and relieve the ... Complaints of the knee locking are associated with functioning of the injured knee prior to arthroscopy.

Last Answer : a) joint effusion. Joint effusion produces marked pain, and the physician may need to aspirate the joint to remove fluid and relieve the pressure.

The following drug terminates paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia rapidly, but cannot be used to prevent its recurrences: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Propranolol D. Digoxin

Description : The following drug terminates paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia rapidly, but cannot be used to prevent its recurrences: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Propranolol D. Digoxin

Last Answer : B. Adenosine

The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine

Description : The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine

Last Answer : B. Verapami

Drugs that block the a receptor on effector cells at adrenergic nerve endings (a) Antagonize the effects of isoproterenol on the heart rate (b) Antagonize some of the effects of epinephrine on the blood pressure (c) Antagonize the effects of epinephrine on adenylyl cyclase (d) Cause mydriasis (e) Decreases blood glucose levels

Description : Drugs that block the a receptor on effector cells at adrenergic nerve endings (a) Antagonize the effects of isoproterenol on the heart rate (b) Antagonize some of the effects of epinephrine on ... the effects of epinephrine on adenylyl cyclase (d) Cause mydriasis (e) Decreases blood glucose levels

Last Answer : Ans: B

Recognized adverse effects of quinidine include which one of the following? (a) Cinchonism (b) Constipation (c) Lupus erythematosus (d) Increase in digoxin clearance (e) Precipitation of hyperthyroidism

Description : Recognized adverse effects of quinidine include which one of the following? (a) Cinchonism (b) Constipation (c) Lupus erythematosus (d) Increase in digoxin clearance (e) Precipitation of hyperthyroidism

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following effects of epinephrine would be blocked by phentolamine but not by metoprolol ? (a) Cardiac stimulation (b) Contractionof radial smooth muscle in the iris (c) Increase of camp in fat (d) Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle (e) Relaxation of the uterus

Description : Which of the following effects of epinephrine would be blocked by phentolamine but not by metoprolol ? (a) Cardiac stimulation (b) Contractionof radial smooth muscle in the iris (c) Increase of camp in fat (d) Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle (e) Relaxation of the uterus

Last Answer : Ans: B

A drug that is useful in glaucoma and high-altitude sickness is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Demeclocycline (d) Desmopressin (e) Ethacrynic acid

Description : A drug that is useful in glaucoma and high-altitude sickness is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Demeclocycline (d) Desmopressin (e) Ethacrynic acid

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following is an orally active drug that blocks sodium channels and decreases action potential duration? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Mexiletine

Description : Which of the following is an orally active drug that blocks sodium channels and decreases action potential duration? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Mexiletine

Last Answer : Ans: E