Description : Which of the following agents has a direct effect on the AV mode, delaying calciumchannel depolarization? (a) Lidocaine (b) Diltiazem (c) Bretylium (d) Quinidine (e) Lbutilide
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Which of the following drugs is preferred for termination of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (a) Digoxin (b) Quinidine (c) Propranolol (d) Verapamil
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Which of the following drugs is a class III antiarrhythmic agent that is effective in the acute management of atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter of recent onset ? (a) Bretylium (b) Lbutilide (c) Metoprolol (d) Disopyramide
Description : A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol
Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem
Last Answer : B. Amiodarone
Description : Which one of the following drugs predictably prolongs the PR interval and increases cardiac contractility? (a) Digoxin (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Quinidine (e) Verapamil
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Strong anticholinergic effects limit the antiarrhythmic use of (a) Quinidine (b) Procainamide (c) Tocainide (d) Flecainide (e) Disopyramide
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Maximal medical therapy for treating angina pectoris is represented by which of the following choices? (a) Diltiazem, verapamil, nitroglycerin (b) Atenolol, isoproterenol, diltiazem (c) Verapamil, nifedipine, propranolol (d) Isosorbide, atenolol, diltiazem (e) Nitroglycerin, isosorbide, atenolol
Description : ‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with (a) Glyceryl trinitrate (b) Dipyridamole (c) Propranolol (d) Diltiazem
Description : Which of the following antianginal drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect ? (a) Amlodipine (b) Nifedipine (c) Diltiazem (d) Verapamil
Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for (a) Conversion of auricular fibrillation to sinus rhythm (b) Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter (c) Termination of ventricular tachycardia (d) Prevention of recurrences of atrial and ventricular extrasystoles/tachycardias
Description : Which one of the following drugs increase digoxin plasma concentration by a pharmacokinetic mechanism? (a) Captopril (b) Hydrochorothiazide (c) Lidocaine (d) Quinidine (e) Sulfasalazine
Description : The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine
Last Answer : B. Verapami
Description : A 16-year-old-girl is found to have paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate. The antiarrhythmic of choice in most cases of acute AV nodal tachycardia is (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Flecainide (d) Propranolol (e) Quinidine
Description : The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil
Last Answer : C. Quinidine
Description : Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) ... phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias
Description : Hypothyroidism is a possible consequence of prolonged therapy with (a) Procainamide (b) Mexiletine (c) Sotalol (d) Amiodarone
Description : A treatment of angina that consistently decreases the heart rate and can prevent vasospastic angina attacks is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) NIFedipine (c) Nitroglycerin (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil
Description : Because of proven beneficial effects on “cardiac remodeling”, these agents are now indicated as first line therapy in CHF patients. Which of the following is representative of this group of drugs? (a) Hydrochlorothiazide (b) Enalapril (c) Furosemide (d) Carvedilol (e) Bumetanide
Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug (a) Nifedipine (b) Verapamil (c) Diltiazem (d) Lisinopril
Description : Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues ... efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)
Description : The action of quinidine differs from that of digitalis in (a) Decreasing irritability of cardiac muscle (b) Preventing passage of impulses to the ventricle (c) Increasing irritability of heart muscle (d) Reducing conductivity (e) None of the above
Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b ... a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above
Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Which of the following is used to lower blood lipid levels? (a) Trimethadione (b) Clofibrate (c) Flucytosine (d) Coumarin (e) Propranolol
Description : Which of the following agents used in prinzmetal’s angina has spasmolytic actions, which increase coronary blood supply? (a) Nitroglycerin (b) Nifedipine (c) Timolol (d) Isosorbide mononitrate (e) Propranolol
Description : Myocardial oxygen demand is increased by all of the following factors except (a) Exercise (b) Smoking (c) Cold temperatures (d) Isoproterenol (e) Propranolol
Description : Which of the following is the drug of choice for management of cardiac arrhythmias that occur in digitalis toxicity? (a) Amiodarone (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Sotalol (e) Prazosin
Description : Which one of the following drugs is used in the treatment of male impotence and activates prostaglandin E1 receptors? (a) Alprostadil (b) Fluoxetine (c) Mifepristone (d) Sildenafil (e) Zafirlukast
Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate
Description : The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension
Last Answer : A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity
Description : The following antiarrhythmic drug accumulates in the body for a very long time: A. Procainamide B. Mexiletine C. Bretylium D. Amiodarone
Last Answer : D. Amiodarone
Description : Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris because (a) They antagonize each other's side effects (b) Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium ... load (c) Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium (d) Both (b) and (c)
Description : Which of the following combinations of drugs, when used together, reduce both preload and afterload? (a) Nitroglycerin and isosorbide dinitrate (b) Hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate (c) Captopril and methyldopa (d) Prazosin and angiotension II (e) Hydralazine and methyldopa
Description : Drugs used in asthma that often cause tachycardia and tremor include (a) Beclomethasone (b) Cromolyn sodium (c) Ipratropium (d) Metaproterenol (e) All of the above
Description : Methylxanthine drugs such as aminophylline cause which one of the following? (a) Vasoconstriction in many vascular beds (b) Decrease in the amount of cAMP in mast cells (c) Bronchodilation (d) Activation of the enzyme phosphodiesterase (e) Sedation
Description : A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium
Description : If the patient has a history of gout, which of the following drugs is most likely to exacerbate this condition? (a) Colestipol (b) Gemfibrozil (c) Lovastatin (d) Niacin (e) Simvastatin
Description : Which of the following drugs is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases by promoting RBC flexibility ? (a) Cyclandelate (b) Theophyline (c) Pentoxiphyline (d) Nicotinic acid
Description : Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener ? (a) Pinacidil (b) Hydralazine (c) Glibenclamide (d) Amiloride
Description : Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina ? (a) Digoxin (b) Furosemide (c) Enalapril (d) Amrinone
Description : Antianginal drugs afford the following benefit/benefits (a) Terminate anginal attacks (b) Decrease the frequency of anginal attacks (c) Retard the progression of coronary artery disease (d) Both (a) and (b)
Description : Following drugs act on imidazoline receptor (a) Moxonidine (b) Dexmedetomidine (c) Tizanidine (d) All of the above
Description : The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine
Last Answer : A. Disopyramide
Description : Select the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for counteracting ventricular extrasystoles due to digoxin toxicity: A. Lignocaine B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone
Last Answer : A. Lignocaine
Description : In case of acute pain of angina pectoris the most effective treatment would be to administer (a) Mannitol hexanitrate (b) Erythrityl tetranitrate (c) Sodium nitrate (d) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate (e) Nitroglycerin
Description : After being counseled about lifestyle and dietary changes, the patient was started on atorvastatin. During his treatment with atorvastatin, it is important to routinely monitor serum concentrations of (a) ... Alanine and aspartate aminotransferase (c) Platelets (d) Red blood cells (e) Uric acid
Description : If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse drug effect that is most likely to occur is (a) Acute renal failure (b) Development of antiplatelet antibodies (c) Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction (d) Hemorrhagic stroke (e) Neutropenia
Description : Milrinone is an example of (a) Phosphodiesterase I inhibitor (b) Phosphodiesterase II inhibitor (c) Phosphodiesterase III inhibitor (d) Phosphodiesterase IV inhibitor
Description : ‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with: A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Dipyridamole C. Propranolol D. Diltiazem
Last Answer : B. Dipyridamole