Description : A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He might have: a. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy b. Cystoid macular edema c. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Central retinal vein occlusion
Last Answer : ANSWER: C
Description : Lens induced glaucoma is least likely to occur in: a. Intumescent cataract. b. Anterior lens dislocation, c. Posterior subcapsular cataract d. Posterior lens dislocation
Description : A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the ... : a. Raised intra cranial pressure b. Raised ocular tension c. Central retinal artery occlusion d. Optic neuritis
Last Answer : ANSWER: D
Description : Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is: a. Macular oedema b. Microaneurysm c. Retinal hemorrhage d. Retinal detachment
Last Answer : ANSWER: A
Description : Ten years old boy complains of itching. On examination, there are mucoid nodules with smooth rounded surface on the limbus, and mucous white ropy mucopurulent conjunctival discharge. He most ... from: a. Trachoma b. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis c. Bulbar spring catarrh d. Purulent conjunctivitis
Description : The type of optic atrophy that follows retro-bulbar neuritis is: a. Secondary optic atrophy b. Consecutive optic atrophy c. Glaucomatous optic atrophy d. Primary optic atrophy
Description : Retro-bulbar optic neuritis is characterized by: a. Marked swelling of the optic disc. b. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye c. Impaired consensual light reflex in the affected eye d. Normal visual acuity
Last Answer : ANSWER: B
Description : True statements about chloroquine include: a. is safer than hydroxychloroquine at equivalent dose b. can cause corneal deposition c. causes posterior subcapsular cataract d. chloroquine is bound to the melanin of the retinal pigment epithelium e. causes reversible toxic maculopathy
Last Answer : can cause corneal deposition
Description : The following may explain why a patient who had had a relative afferent pupillary defect has normal pupillary reaction to light: a. removal of a cataract b. resolution of optic neuritis c. anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy in both eyes d. development of bilateral papilloedema
Last Answer : anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy in both eyes
Description : A painful, tender, non itchy localized redness of the conjunctiva can be due to: a. Bulbar spring catarrh. b. Episcleritis. c. Vascular pterygium. d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis.
Description : Tranta's spots are noticed in cases of: a. Active trachoma b. Bulbar spring catarrh c. Corneal phlycten d. Vitamin A deficiency
Description : Corneal Herbert's rosettes are found in: a. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis b. Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis c. Active trachoma d. Spring catarrh
Description : In vernal catarrh, the characteristic cells are: a. Macrophage b. Eosinophils c. Neutrophils d. Epitheloid cells
Description : Ptosis and mydriasis are seen in: a. Facial palsy b. Peripheral neuritis c. Oculomotor palsy d. Sympathetic palsy
Description : Unilateral aphakia is likely to be corrected by any of the following except: a. Anterior chamber intraocular lens b. Posterior chamber intraocular lens c. Contact tens d. Glasses
Description : In Central retinal artery occlusion, a cherry red spot is due to: a. Hemorrhage at macula b. Increased choroidal perfusion c. Increase in retinal perfusion at macula d. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids
Description : Commonest cause of posterior staphyloma is: a. Glaucoma b. Retinal detachment c. Iridocyclitis d. High myopia
Description : A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is: a. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion b. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion c. Diabetes Mellitus d. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion
Description : A female patient 18 years old, who is contact lens wearer since two years, is complaining of redness, lacrimation and foreign body sensation of both eyes. On examination, visual acuity ... uveitis. b. Giant papillary conjunctivitis. c. Bacterial corneal ulcer. d. Acute congestive glaucoma
Description : After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red ... a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis
Description : Earliest visual rehabilitation occurs with: a. Phacoemulsification plus intraocular lens implantation b. Intracapsular cataract extraction plus intraocular lens implantation c. Extracapsular cataract extraction plus intraocular lens implantation d. Small incision cataract extraction
Description : Phakolytic glaucoma is best treated by: a. Fistulizing operation b. Cataract extraction c. Cyclo-destructive procedure d. Miotics and Beta blockers
Description : Topical steroids are contraindicated in a case of viral corneal ulcer for fear of: a. Secondary glaucoma b. Cortical cataract. c. Corneal perforation d. Secondary viral infection.
Description : The earliest feature of anterior uveitis includes: a. Keratic precipitates b. Hypopyon c. Posterior synechiae d. Aqueous flare
Description : Aqueous humour is formed by: a. Epithelium of ciliary body b. Posterior surface of iris c. Lens d. Pars plana
Description : One of the earliest features of anterior uveitis includes: a. Keratic precipitates b. Hypopyon c. Posterior synechiae d. Aqueous flare
Description : Intercalary staphyloma is a type of: a. Equatorial staphyloma b. Posterior staphyloma c. Scleral staphyloma d. Anterior staphyloma
Description : A 37 years-old patient presents with paroxysmal pain on the left eye that he thinks is related to his maxillary posterior teeth. The pain comes in recurrent bursts and is aggravated by stress and ... diagnosis is: A. Migraine B. Cluster headache C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Temporal neuritis
Last Answer : B. Cluster headache
Description : A 30 years old male presents with a history of injury to the eye with a leaf 5 days ago and pain, photophobia and redness of the eye for 2 days. What would be the most likely pathology? a. Anterior uveitis b. Conjunctivitis c. Fungal corneal ulcer d. Corneal laceration
Description : Homonymous hemianopia is the result of a lesion in: a. Optic chiasma b. Retina c. optic tract d. Optic nerve
Description : Optic nerve axon emerges from: a. Ganglion cells b. Rods and cones c. Amacrine cells d. Inner nuclear layer
Description : Optic nerve function is best studied by: a. Direct Ophthalmoscope b. Retinoscope c. Perimetry d. Gonioscopy
Description : Optic disc diameter is: a. 1 mm b. 1.5 mm c. 2 mm d. 3 mm
Description : Homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion at: a. Optic tract b. Optic nerve c. Optic chiasma d. Retina e. Occipital cortex
Description : Primary optic atrophy results from: a. Retinal disease b. Chronic glaucoma c. Papilledema d. Neurological disease
Description : You have been referred a case of open angle glaucoma. Which of the following would be an important point in diagnosing the case? a. Shallow anterior chamber b. Optic disc cupping c. Narrow angle d. visual acuity and refractive error
Description : Cornea is supplied by nerve fibers derived from: a. Trochlear nerve b. Optic nerve c. Trigeminal nerve d. Oculomotor nerve
Description : In grades of binocular vision; grade 2 is: a. Simultaneous macular vision b. Fusion c. Stereopsis
Description : Papilloedema has all the following characteristics except: a. Marked loss of vision b. Blurring of disc margins c. Hyperemia of disc d. Field defect
Description : Which is not found in papilloedema? a. Blurred vision b. Blurred margins of disc c. Cupping of disc d. Retinal edema
Description : All the following associated open angle glaucoma include all the following except: a. Roenne’s nasal step b. Enlarged blind spot c. Generalized depression of isopters d. Loss of central fields e. Tubular vision
Description : The most important symptom differentiating orbital cellulitis from panophthalmitis is: a. Vision b. Pain c. Redness d. Swelling
Description : The best treatment for amblyopia is: a. Orthoptic exercises b. Occlusion c. Surgery d. Best treat after age 10 years
Description : A one-month old baby is brought with complaints of photophobia and watering. Clinical examination shows normal tear passages and clear but large cornea. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Congenital dacryocystitis b. Interstitial keratitis c. Keratoconus d. Buphthalmos
Description : 3 months old infant with watering lacrimal sac on pressing causes regurgitation of mucopus material. What is the appropriate treatment? a. Dacryocystorhinostomy b. Probing c. Probing with syringing d. Massage with antibiotics up to age of 6 months e. Dacryocystectomy
Description : Schirmer’s test is used for diagnosing: a. Dry eye b. Infective keratitis c. Watering eyes d. Horner’s syndrome
Description : The treatment of choice for the other eye in angle closure glaucoma is: a. Surgical peripheral iridectomy b. Yag laser iridotomy c. Trabeculotomy d. Trabeculectomy
Description : The effective treatment of dendritic ulcer of the cornea is: a. Surface anesthesia b. Local corticosteroids c. Systemic corticosteroids d. Acyclovir ointment
Description : The Pulfrich phenomenon: a. occurs in patients with bilateral macular degeneration b. occurs in optic neuritis c. refers to the perception of photopsia d. refers to the illusion of abnormal motion
Last Answer : refers to the illusion of abnormal motion
Description : The commonest cause of unilateral exophthalmos is: a. Thyroid eye disease b. Lacrimal gland tumour c. Orbital cellulitis d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis