Description : A one-month old baby is brought with complaints of photophobia and watering. Clinical examination shows normal tear passages and clear but large cornea. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Congenital dacryocystitis b. Interstitial keratitis c. Keratoconus d. Buphthalmos
Last Answer : ANSWER: D
Description : Proptosis is present in the following condition except: a. Horner's syndrome b. Orbital cellulitis c. Thyroid ophthalmopathy d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Last Answer : ANSWER: A
Description : Ptosis in Horner's syndrome, is due to paralysis of: a. Riolan's muscle b. Horner's muscle c. Muller's muscle d. The levator palpebral muscle e. Orbicularis oculi muscle
Last Answer : ANSWER: C
Description : Ciliary injection is not seen in: a. Herpetic keratitis b. Bacterial ulcer c. Chronic iridocyclitis d. Catarrhal conjunctivitis e. Acute iridocyclitis
Description : Herpes simplex keratitis is characterized by: a. Presence of pus in the anterior chamber b. No tendency to recurrence c. Corneal hyposthesia d. Tendency to perforate
Description : Corneal sensations are diminished in: a. Herpes simplex b. Conjunctivitis c. Fungal infections d. Marginal keratitis
Description : You have been referred a case of open angle glaucoma. Which of the following would be an important point in diagnosing the case? a. Shallow anterior chamber b. Optic disc cupping c. Narrow angle d. visual acuity and refractive error
Last Answer : ANSWER: B
Description : An Afro-Carribean male aged 48 years presents with gradual onset of exertional dyspnoea, non productive cough, malaise, weight loss and polyarthralgia. Schirmers test indicates a dry eye. X-ray ... 2) Serum phosphorus 3) Urea and electrolytes 4) Thallium Scan 5) Quantitative Immunoglobulins.
Last Answer : Answers-4 This condition is sarcoidosis. Serum calcium, Serum phosphorus, Chem7 and Chem 20 and Quantitative Immunoglobulins are all used in establishing the diagnosis. Gallium scan is helpful in ... areas of poor perfusion. It is particularly used in cardiology to detect areas of ischaemia.
Description : A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the ... : a. Raised intra cranial pressure b. Raised ocular tension c. Central retinal artery occlusion d. Optic neuritis
Description : 3 months old infant with watering lacrimal sac on pressing causes regurgitation of mucopus material. What is the appropriate treatment? a. Dacryocystorhinostomy b. Probing c. Probing with syringing d. Massage with antibiotics up to age of 6 months e. Dacryocystectomy
Description : Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum
Last Answer : C. Herpes simplex keratitis
Description : A female patient 18 years old, who is contact lens wearer since two years, is complaining of redness, lacrimation and foreign body sensation of both eyes. On examination, visual acuity ... uveitis. b. Giant papillary conjunctivitis. c. Bacterial corneal ulcer. d. Acute congestive glaucoma
Description : A 12 years old boy receiving long term treatment for spring catarrh, developed defective vision in both eyes. The likely cause is: a. Posterior subcapsular cataract b. Retinopathy of prematurity c. Optic neuritis d. Vitreous hemorrhage
Description : All the following are extraocular muscle of eye except: a. Superior rectus b. Ciliary muscle c. Inferior oblique d. Superior oblique
Description : In complete third nerve paralysis the direction of the affected eye in the primary position is: a. Inward b. Outward c. Outward and up d. Outward and down
Description : All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except: a. Ptosis b. Diplopia c. Miosis d. Outwards eye deviation
Description : Retro-bulbar optic neuritis is characterized by: a. Marked swelling of the optic disc. b. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye c. Impaired consensual light reflex in the affected eye d. Normal visual acuity
Description : Amaurotic cat's eye reflex is seen in: a. Papilloedema b. Retinoblastoma c. Papillitis d. Retinitis
Description : The treatment of choice for the other eye in angle closure glaucoma is: a. Surgical peripheral iridectomy b. Yag laser iridotomy c. Trabeculotomy d. Trabeculectomy
Description : After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red ... a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis
Description : The commonest cause of unilateral exophthalmos is: a. Thyroid eye disease b. Lacrimal gland tumour c. Orbital cellulitis d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Description : A 30 years old male presents with a history of injury to the eye with a leaf 5 days ago and pain, photophobia and redness of the eye for 2 days. What would be the most likely pathology? a. Anterior uveitis b. Conjunctivitis c. Fungal corneal ulcer d. Corneal laceration
Description : Patching of the eye is contraindicated in: a. Corneal abrasion b. Bacterial corneal ulcer c. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis d. After glaucoma surgery
Description : The sure diagnostic sign of corneal ulcer is a. Ciliary injection b. Blepharospasm c. Miosis d. Positive fluorescein test.
Description : Corneal sensations are diminished in
Last Answer : herpes virus
Description : The best treatment for amblyopia is: a. Orthoptic exercises b. Occlusion c. Surgery d. Best treat after age 10 years
Description : In grades of binocular vision; grade 2 is: a. Simultaneous macular vision b. Fusion c. Stereopsis
Description : In paralytic squint, the difference between primary and secondary deviation in the gaze of direction of the paralytic muscle: a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains the same
Description : In concomitant squint: a. Primary deviation > Secondary deviation b. Primary deviation < Secondary deviation c. Primary deviation = Secondary deviation d. None of the above
Description : The only extraocular muscle which does not arise from the apex of the orbit is: a. Superior rectus b. Superior oblique c. Inferior oblique d. Inferior rectus
Description : The action of inferior oblique is: a. Depression, extorsion, abduction b. Depression, extorsion, adduction c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction
Description : The action of superior rectus is: a. Elevation, intorsion, abduction b. Elevation, intorsion, adduction c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction.
Description : D-shaped pupil occurs in: a. Iridocyclitis b. Iridodenesis c. Cyclodialsis d. Iridodialysis
Description : Mydriasis is present in all the following except: a. Third nerve lesion b. Pontine haemorrhage c. Datura poisoning d. Fourth stage of anesthesia
Description : Homonymous hemianopia is the result of a lesion in: a. Optic chiasma b. Retina c. optic tract d. Optic nerve
Description : Papilloedema has all the following characteristics except: a. Marked loss of vision b. Blurring of disc margins c. Hyperemia of disc d. Field defect
Description : Optic nerve axon emerges from: a. Ganglion cells b. Rods and cones c. Amacrine cells d. Inner nuclear layer
Description : Optic nerve function is best studied by: a. Direct Ophthalmoscope b. Retinoscope c. Perimetry d. Gonioscopy
Description : Optic disc diameter is: a. 1 mm b. 1.5 mm c. 2 mm d. 3 mm
Description : Which is not found in papilloedema? a. Blurred vision b. Blurred margins of disc c. Cupping of disc d. Retinal edema
Description : Homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion at: a. Optic tract b. Optic nerve c. Optic chiasma d. Retina e. Occipital cortex
Description : The type of optic atrophy that follows retro-bulbar neuritis is: a. Secondary optic atrophy b. Consecutive optic atrophy c. Glaucomatous optic atrophy d. Primary optic atrophy
Description : Primary optic atrophy results from: a. Retinal disease b. Chronic glaucoma c. Papilledema d. Neurological disease
Description : Occlusion of the lower nasal branch of the central retinal artery results in one of the following field defects: a. Lower nasal sector field defect b. Upper nasal sector field defect c. Upper temporal field defect d. Lower temporal sector field defect
Description : A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He might have: a. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy b. Cystoid macular edema c. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Central retinal vein occlusion
Description : The most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults is: a. Retinoblastoma b. Choroidal melanoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva d. Iris nevus
Description : In Central retinal artery occlusion, a cherry red spot is due to: a. Hemorrhage at macula b. Increased choroidal perfusion c. Increase in retinal perfusion at macula d. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids
Description : Night blindness is caused by: a. Central retinal vein occlusion b. Dystrophies of retinal rods c. Dystrophies of the retinal cones d. Retinal detachment
Description : Commotio retinae is seen in: a. Concussion injury b. Papilloedema c. Central retinal vein thrombosis d. Central retinal artery thrombosis
Last Answer : a
Description : Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is: a. Macular oedema b. Microaneurysm c. Retinal hemorrhage d. Retinal detachment