Description : In patients with renal insufficiency the clearance of the following drug is reduced parallel to the reduction in creatinine clearance: A. Propranolol B. Digoxin C. Lignocaine D. Verapamil
Last Answer : B. Digoxin
Description : The elderly patients are relatively intolerant to: A. Digoxin B. Salbutamol C. Propranolol D. Nifedipine
Last Answer : A. Digoxin
Description : Select the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for counteracting ventricular extrasystoles due to digoxin toxicity: A. Lignocaine B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone
Last Answer : A. Lignocaine
Description : In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated
Last Answer : C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally
Description : The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil
Last Answer : C. Quinidine
Description : The following drug terminates paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia rapidly, but cannot be used to prevent its recurrences: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Propranolol D. Digoxin
Last Answer : B. Adenosine
Description : The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine
Last Answer : B. Verapami
Description : The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant
Last Answer : C. Volume of distribution
Description : If a drug is excreted in urine at the rate of 10 mg/hr at a steady-state plasma concentration of 5 mg/L, then its renal clearance is: A. 0.5 L/hr B. 2.0 L/hr C. 5.0 L/hr D. 20 L/hr
Last Answer : B. 2.0 L/hr
Description : If a drug undergoes net tubular secretion, its renal clearance will be: A. More than the glomerular filtration rate B. Equal to the glomerular filtration rate C. Less than the glomerular filtration rate D. Equal to the rate of urine formation
Last Answer : A. More than the glomerular filtration rate
Description : Which of the following drugs is preferred for termination of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (a) Digoxin (b) Quinidine (c) Propranolol (d) Verapamil
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Which one of the following drugs predictably prolongs the PR interval and increases cardiac contractility? (a) Digoxin (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Quinidine (e) Verapamil
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Tobramycin (d) Erythromycin
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Tobramycin D. Erythromycin
Last Answer : C. Tobramycin
Description : Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity
Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia
Description : A drug which is generally administered in standard doses without the need for dose individualization is: A. Insulin B. Mebendazole C. Prednisolone D. Digoxin
Last Answer : B. Mebendazole
Description : Select the drug that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver: A. Phenobarbitone B. Propranolol C. Phenylbutazone D. Theophylline
Last Answer : B. Propranolol
Description : If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3
Last Answer : B. × 2
Description : If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance
Last Answer : D. Total body clearanc
Description : If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics: A. A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time B. Its clearance value will remain constant C. Its elimination half life will increase with dose D. It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 × half life period
Last Answer : B. Its clearance value will remain constant
Description : Started within 4-6 hours of acute myocardial infarction, which of the following drug(s) can reduce the area of necrosis and the attendant mortality: A. Propranolol B. Glyceryl trinitrate C. Lignocaine D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : Creatinine EDTA clearance is a test to measure (A) Renal plasma flow (B) Filtration fraction (C) Glomerular filtration rate (D) Tubular function
Last Answer : Answer : C
Description : Which of the following is true of ‘placebos’: A. Placebo is a dummy medication B. Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for making tablets C. Placebos do not produce any effect D. All patients respond to placebos
Last Answer : A. Placebo is a dummy medication
Description : The following drug metabolizing reaction is entirely nonmicrosomal: A. Glucuronide conjugation B. Acetylation C. Oxidation D. Reduction
Last Answer : B. Acetylation
Description : The following is not a feature of competitive antagonists: A. Chemical resemblance with the agonist B. Parallel rightward shift of the agonist log doseresponse curve C. Suppression of maximal agonist response D. Apparent reduction in agonist affinity for the receptor
Last Answer : C. Suppression of maximal agonist response
Description : Essential amino acids have been advocated as standard therapy for renal failure. Which of the following statements are true? A. Increased survival from acute renal failure has been reported ... BUN and creatinine to the same degree as solutions containing excessive nonessential amino acids.
Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: Essential amino acids and hypertonic dextrose, as opposed to hypertonic dextrose alone, was reported by Abel and co-workers to be associated with a decreased mortality rate ... renal failure have not been carried out in sufficient numbers to yield answers to this question
Description : 60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%
Last Answer : B. 50%
Description : A 60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%
Description : A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist
Last Answer : C. Competitive antagonist
Description : What is the MOST adverse reaction to lignocaine: A. Drug interaction with patient’s medicines B. Injecting into vein C. Hypersensitivity D. Toxicity
Last Answer : D. Toxicity
Description : Which of the following is not a primary/fundamental, but a derived pharmacokinetic parameter: A. Bioavailability B. Volume of distribution C. Clearance D. Plasma half life
Last Answer : D. Plasma half life
Description : Which of the following drugs depresses automaticity of SA node as well as ectopic foci, abbreviates action potential duration of Purkinje fibres, and slows atrioventricular conduction: A. Propranolol B. Lignocaine C. Procainamide D. Bretylium
Last Answer : A. Propranolol
Description : A visitor from another city comes to your office complaining of incessant cough. He has diabetes and hypertension and has recently started taking a different antihypertensive medication. The most likely cause of his cough is (a) Enalapril (b) Losartan (c) Minoxidil (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil
Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate
Description : Maximal medical therapy for treating angina pectoris is represented by which of the following choices? (a) Diltiazem, verapamil, nitroglycerin (b) Atenolol, isoproterenol, diltiazem (c) Verapamil, nifedipine, propranolol (d) Isosorbide, atenolol, diltiazem (e) Nitroglycerin, isosorbide, atenolol
Description : A treatment of angina that consistently decreases the heart rate and can prevent vasospastic angina attacks is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) NIFedipine (c) Nitroglycerin (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: A. Nifedipine B. Felodipine C. Verapamil D. Isosorbide mononitrate
Last Answer : C. Verapami
Description : Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina: A. Propranolol B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Dipyridamole
Description : A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/ ... Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity
Last Answer : d) Overdose toxicity
Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level
Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened
Description : In patients of hepatic cirrhosis: A. The extent of change in pharmacokinetics of drugs can be predicted from the values of liver function tests B. High doses of furosemide can be safely used C. Metformin is the preferred oral hypoglycaemic D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected
Last Answer : D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected
Description : Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol
Last Answer : C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects