Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol
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Answer :

C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects
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Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Description : Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Last Answer : C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects

Pilocarpine reduces intraocular tension in open angle glaucoma by: A. Contracting sphincter pupillae B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle C. Reducing aqueous formation D. Enhancing uveo-scleral outflow

Description : Pilocarpine reduces intraocular tension in open angle glaucoma by: A. Contracting sphincter pupillae B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle C. Reducing aqueous formation D. Enhancing uveo-scleral outflow

Last Answer : B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle

Pilocarpine reduces intraocular tension in open angle glaucoma by: A. Contracting sphincter pupillae B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle C. Reducing aqueous formation D. Enhancing uveo-scleral outflow

Description : Pilocarpine reduces intraocular tension in open angle glaucoma by: A. Contracting sphincter pupillae B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle C. Reducing aqueous formation D. Enhancing uveo-scleral outflow

Last Answer : B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle

Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Description : Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Last Answer : A. Is a β1 selective blocker

Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Description : Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Last Answer : A. Is a β1 selective blocker

Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Description : Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Last Answer : D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker: A. Timolol B. Betaxolol C. Cartiolol D. Levobunolol

Description : Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker: A. Timolol B. Betaxolol C. Cartiolol D. Levobunolol

Last Answer : D. Levobunolol

Pilocarpine is used for: A. Glaucoma B. Paralytic ileus C. Urinary retention D. All of the above

Description : Pilocarpine is used for: A. Glaucoma B. Paralytic ileus C. Urinary retention D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Glaucoma

Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Description : Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Last Answer : D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that: A. It is more potent orally B. It is longer acting C. It produces less muscarinic side effects D. It does not have any direct action on NM receptors

Description : Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that: A. It is more potent orally B. It is longer acting C. It produces less muscarinic side effects D. It does not have any direct action on NM receptors

Last Answer : B. It is longer acting

Actions of pilocarpine include the following except: A. Sweating B. Salivation C. Miosis D. Cycloplegia

Description : Actions of pilocarpine include the following except: A. Sweating B. Salivation C. Miosis D. Cycloplegia

Last Answer : D. Cycloplegia

Acetylcholine has no therapeutic application because: A. None of its actions are beneficial in any condition B. Its effects are transient C. It produces wide spread actions affecting many organs D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Acetylcholine has no therapeutic application because: A. None of its actions are beneficial in any condition B. Its effects are transient C. It produces wide spread actions affecting many organs D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

In patients of hepatic cirrhosis: A. The extent of change in pharmacokinetics of drugs can be predicted from the values of liver function tests B. High doses of furosemide can be safely used C. Metformin is the preferred oral hypoglycaemic D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected

Description : In patients of hepatic cirrhosis: A. The extent of change in pharmacokinetics of drugs can be predicted from the values of liver function tests B. High doses of furosemide can be safely used C. Metformin is the preferred oral hypoglycaemic D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected

Last Answer : D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected

In patients of hepatic cirrhosis: A. The extent of change in pharmacokinetics of drugs can be predicted from the values of liver function tests B. High doses of furosemide can be safely used C. Metformin is the preferred oral hypoglycaemic D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected

Description : In patients of hepatic cirrhosis: A. The extent of change in pharmacokinetics of drugs can be predicted from the values of liver function tests B. High doses of furosemide can be safely used C. Metformin is the preferred oral hypoglycaemic D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected

Last Answer : D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red reflex. The first suspicion must be: a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis

Description : After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red ... a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis  

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened

The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened

To be used as a topically applied ocular beta blocker a drug should have the following properties except: A. Strong local anaesthetic activity B. High lipophilicity C. High ocular capture D. Low systemic activity

Description : To be used as a topically applied ocular beta blocker a drug should have the following properties except: A. Strong local anaesthetic activity B. High lipophilicity C. High ocular capture D. Low systemic activity

Last Answer : A. Strong local anaesthetic activity

Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis because: A. It is better absorbed orally B. It has longer duration of action C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate D. It penetrates blood-brain barrier

Description : Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis because: A. It is better absorbed orally B. It has longer duration of action C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate D. It penetrates blood-brain barrier

Last Answer : C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate

In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated

Description : In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated

Last Answer : C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally

In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated

Description : In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated

Last Answer : C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally

The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is: A. Canal of Schlemm B. Ciliary body C. Ciliary muscle D. Sphincter pupillae muscle

Description : The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is: A. Canal of Schlemm B. Ciliary body C. Ciliary muscle D. Sphincter pupillae muscle

Last Answer : D. Sphincter pupillae muscle

Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker: A. Timolol B. Betaxolol C. Cartiolol D. Levobunolol

Description : Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker: A. Timolol B. Betaxolol C. Cartiolol D. Levobunolol

Last Answer : D. Levobunolol

Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Description : Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. ... its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Last Answer : C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effect

Cholinergic muscarinic receptor stimulation produces the following effects except: A. Sweating B. Rise in blood pressure C. Bradycardia D. Urination

Description : Cholinergic muscarinic receptor stimulation produces the following effects except: A. Sweating B. Rise in blood pressure C. Bradycardia D. Urination

Last Answer : B. Rise in blood pressure

Verrryy long scenario of old age pt with DM, HTN, hx of multiple cardiac attack, CVA, came for routine check up in PHC, u found bilateral opacification in both lenses, with decreasing of visual acuity, u will: Refer to lazer therapist refer to cataract surgeon refer to ophthalmologist follow up 60-patient on glaucoma medication for weeks came with SOB, cough the cause a- timolol b- betoxolol c- pilocarpin

Description : Verrryy long scenario of old age pt with DM, HTN, hx of multiple cardiac attack, CVA, came for routine check up in PHC, u found bilateral opacification in both lenses, with decreasing of visual ... glaucoma medication for weeks came with SOB, cough the cause a- timolol b- betoxolol c- pilocarpin

Last Answer : a- timolol

Praziquantel is preferred over niclosamide for Taenia solium infestation because: A. It achieves higher cure rates B. It produces fewer side effects C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Praziquantel is preferred over niclosamide for Taenia solium infestation because: A. It achieves higher cure rates B. It produces fewer side effects C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized

A direct-acting cholinomimetic that is lipid-soluble and often used in the treatment of glaucoma is (a) Acetylcholine (b) Bethanechol (c) Physostigmine (d) Pilocarpine (e) Neostigmine

Description : A direct-acting cholinomimetic that is lipid-soluble and often used in the treatment of glaucoma is (a) Acetylcholine (b) Bethanechol (c) Physostigmine (d) Pilocarpine (e) Neostigmine

Last Answer : Ans: D

Pilocarpine is used for: A. Glaucoma B. Paralytic ileus C. Urinary retention D. All of the above

Description : Pilocarpine is used for: A. Glaucoma B. Paralytic ileus C. Urinary retention D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Glaucoma

A partial agonist can antagonise the effects of a full agonist because it has: A. High affinity but low intrinsic activity B. Low affinity but high intrinsic activity C. No affinity and low intrinsic activity D. High affinity but no intrinsic activity

Description : A partial agonist can antagonise the effects of a full agonist because it has: A. High affinity but low intrinsic activity B. Low affinity but high intrinsic activity C. No affinity and low intrinsic activity D. High affinity but no intrinsic activity

Last Answer : A. High affinity but low intrinsic activity

A partial agonist can antagonise the effects of a full agonist because it has: A. High affinity but low intrinsic activity B. Low affinity but high intrinsic activity C. No affinity and low intrinsic activity D. High affinity but no intrinsic activity

Description : A partial agonist can antagonise the effects of a full agonist because it has: A. High affinity but low intrinsic activity B. Low affinity but high intrinsic activity C. No affinity and low intrinsic activity D. High affinity but no intrinsic activity

Last Answer : A. High affinity but low intrinsic activity

Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria C. It is highly effective in acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Description : Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills ... acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Last Answer : B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria

Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting ... production. d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors decrease aqueous humor production.

Last Answer : a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Answer: e The role of nutritional support in the cancer patient remains an important component of overall therapy. Preoperative nutritional support should be given only to those patients who do not require an emergency operation and who have severe weight loss (> 15% of pre-illness body weight) and a serum albumen < 2.9 mg%. Preoperative nutrition (enteral or parenteral) should not be given for longer than 7 to 10 days. Enteral nutrition is always the preferred route of feeding cancer patients if the GI tract is functional. There are several benefits of using the bowel lumen for nutrient delivery. The trophic effects of enteral feeding on small bowel mucosa have been well described. The integrity of the mucosal lining is maintained and it may provide an effective barrier to intraluminal

Description : Answer: e The role of nutritional support in the cancer patient remains an important component of overall therapy. Preoperative nutritional support should be given only to those patients who ... of bowel rest; this atrophy is not reversed by currently available total parenteral nutrition solutions

Last Answer : Which of the following hormones can be expected to be released as part of the stress response? a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b. Aldosterone c. Insulin d. Epinephrine nswer: a, b, d ... This hormone has the exact opposite effect of insulin, which promotes glucose storage and uptake by the cells

Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency? a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment.

Description : Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency? a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment. b) Normal tension glaucoma Normal tension ... is treated initially with topical medications, with oral medications added at a later time.

Last Answer : a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment.

The antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is called ‘physiological antagonism’ because: A. Both are physiologically present in the body B. They act on physiological receptors C. Both affect many physiological processes D. They have opposite physiological effects

Description : The antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is called ‘physiological antagonism’ because: A. Both are physiologically present in the body B. They act on physiological receptors C. Both affect many physiological processes D. They have opposite physiological effects

Last Answer : D. They have opposite physiological effects

The antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is called ‘physiological antagonism’ because: A. Both are physiologically present in the body B. They act on physiological receptors C. Both affect many physiological processes D. They have opposite physiological effects

Description : The antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is called ‘physiological antagonism’ because: A. Both are physiologically present in the body B. They act on physiological receptors C. Both affect many physiological processes D. They have opposite physiological effects

Last Answer : D. They have opposite physiological effects

An 'orphan drug' is: A. A very cheap drug B. A drug which has no therapeutic use C. A drug needed for treatment or prevention of a rare disease D. A drug which acts on Orphanin receptors

Description : An 'orphan drug' is: A. A very cheap drug B. A drug which has no therapeutic use C. A drug needed for treatment or prevention of a rare disease D. A drug which acts on Orphanin receptors

Last Answer : C. A drug needed for treatment or prevention of a rare disease

An 'orphan drug' is: A. A very cheap drug B. A drug which has no therapeutic use C. A drug needed for treatment or prevention of a rare disease D. A drug which acts on Orphanin receptors

Description : An 'orphan drug' is: A. A very cheap drug B. A drug which has no therapeutic use C. A drug needed for treatment or prevention of a rare disease D. A drug which acts on Orphanin receptors

Last Answer : C. A drug needed for treatment or prevention of a rare disease

An addicting drug which produces little or no physical dependence is: A. Diazepam B. Phenobarbitone C. Amphetamine D. Methadone

Description : An addicting drug which produces little or no physical dependence is: A. Diazepam B. Phenobarbitone C. Amphetamine D. Methadone

Last Answer : C. Amphetamine

An addicting drug which produces little or no physical dependence is: A. Diazepam B. Phenobarbitone C. Amphetamine D. Methadone

Description : An addicting drug which produces little or no physical dependence is: A. Diazepam B. Phenobarbitone C. Amphetamine D. Methadone

Last Answer : C. Amphetamine

In patients with renal insufficiency the clearance of the following drug is reduced parallel to the reduction in creatinine clearance: A. Propranolol B. Digoxin C. Lignocaine D. Verapamil

Description : In patients with renal insufficiency the clearance of the following drug is reduced parallel to the reduction in creatinine clearance: A. Propranolol B. Digoxin C. Lignocaine D. Verapamil

Last Answer : B. Digoxin

The elderly patients are relatively intolerant to: A. Digoxin B. Salbutamol C. Propranolol D. Nifedipine

Description : The elderly patients are relatively intolerant to: A. Digoxin B. Salbutamol C. Propranolol D. Nifedipine

Last Answer : A. Digoxin

In patients with renal insufficiency the clearance of the following drug is reduced parallel to the reduction in creatinine clearance: A. Propranolol B. Digoxin C. Lignocaine D. Verapamil

Description : In patients with renal insufficiency the clearance of the following drug is reduced parallel to the reduction in creatinine clearance: A. Propranolol B. Digoxin C. Lignocaine D. Verapamil

Last Answer : B. Digoxin

Which of the following is true of ‘placebos’: A. Placebo is a dummy medication B. Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for making tablets C. Placebos do not produce any effect D. All patients respond to placebos

Description : Which of the following is true of ‘placebos’: A. Placebo is a dummy medication B. Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for making tablets C. Placebos do not produce any effect D. All patients respond to placebos

Last Answer : A. Placebo is a dummy medication

The elderly patients are relatively intolerant to: A. Digoxin B. Salbutamol C. Propranolol D. Nifedipine

Description : The elderly patients are relatively intolerant to: A. Digoxin B. Salbutamol C. Propranolol D. Nifedipine

Last Answer : A. Digoxin

Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramuscular injection of drugs: A. Is more painful B. Produces faster response C. Is unsuitable for depot preparations D. Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction

Description : Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramuscular injection of drugs: A. Is more painful B. Produces faster response C. Is unsuitable for depot preparations D. Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction

Last Answer : B. Produces faster response