A drug which is generally administered in standard doses without the need for dose individualization is: A. Insulin B. Mebendazole C. Prednisolone D. Digoxin

A drug which is generally administered in standard doses without the need for dose individualization is: A. Insulin B. Mebendazole C. Prednisolone D. Digoxin
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B. Mebendazole
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A drug which is generally administered in standard doses without the need for dose individualization is: A. Insulin B. Mebendazole C. Prednisolone D. Digoxin

Description : A drug which is generally administered in standard doses without the need for dose individualization is: A. Insulin B. Mebendazole C. Prednisolone D. Digoxin

Last Answer : B. Mebendazole

Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Description : Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Last Answer : B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism

Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Description : Tricyclic antidepressants can alter the oral absorption of many drugs by: A. Complexing with the other drug in the intestinal lumen B. Altering gut motility C. Altering gut flora D. Damaging gut mucosa

Last Answer : C. Altering gut flora

Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Description : Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to ... in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Last Answer : A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form

Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Description : Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to ... in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Last Answer : A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form

In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated

Description : In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated

Last Answer : C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally

In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated

Description : In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated

Last Answer : C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally

Drug cumulation is the basis of organ toxicity of the following drug when used for prolonged periods: A. Prednisolone B. Chloroquine C. Aspirin D. Hydralazine

Description : Drug cumulation is the basis of organ toxicity of the following drug when used for prolonged periods: A. Prednisolone B. Chloroquine C. Aspirin D. Hydralazine

Last Answer : B. Chloroquine

Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Description : Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Last Answer : C. Antitubercular drugs

In patients with renal insufficiency the clearance of the following drug is reduced parallel to the reduction in creatinine clearance: A. Propranolol B. Digoxin C. Lignocaine D. Verapamil

Description : In patients with renal insufficiency the clearance of the following drug is reduced parallel to the reduction in creatinine clearance: A. Propranolol B. Digoxin C. Lignocaine D. Verapamil

Last Answer : B. Digoxin

Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity

Description : Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity

Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia

In patients with renal insufficiency the clearance of the following drug is reduced parallel to the reduction in creatinine clearance: A. Propranolol B. Digoxin C. Lignocaine D. Verapamil

Description : In patients with renal insufficiency the clearance of the following drug is reduced parallel to the reduction in creatinine clearance: A. Propranolol B. Digoxin C. Lignocaine D. Verapamil

Last Answer : B. Digoxin

Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity

Description : Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity

Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia

An undesirable effect of a drug that occurs at therapeutic doses and can be predicted from its pharmacological actions is called: A. Side effect B. Toxic effect C. Allergic reaction D. Idiosyncrasy

Description : An undesirable effect of a drug that occurs at therapeutic doses and can be predicted from its pharmacological actions is called: A. Side effect B. Toxic effect C. Allergic reaction D. Idiosyncrasy

Last Answer : A. Side effect

Interindividual variations in equieffective doses of a drug are most marked if it is disposed by: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Both glomerular filtration and tubular secretion D. Hepatic metabolism

Description : Interindividual variations in equieffective doses of a drug are most marked if it is disposed by: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Both glomerular filtration and tubular secretion D. Hepatic metabolism

Last Answer : D. Hepatic metabolism

Which of the following is always true: A. A more potent drug is more efficacious B. A more potent drug is safer C. A more potent drug is clinically superior D. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses

Description : Which of the following is always true: A. A more potent drug is more efficacious B. A more potent drug is safer C. A more potent drug is clinically superior D. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses

Last Answer : D. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses

An undesirable effect of a drug that occurs at therapeutic doses and can be predicted from its pharmacological actions is called: A. Side effect B. Toxic effect C. Allergic reaction D. Idiosyncrasy

Description : An undesirable effect of a drug that occurs at therapeutic doses and can be predicted from its pharmacological actions is called: A. Side effect B. Toxic effect C. Allergic reaction D. Idiosyncrasy

Last Answer : A. Side effect

Interindividual variations in equieffective doses of a drug are most marked if it is disposed by: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Both glomerular filtration and tubular secretion D. Hepatic metabolism

Description : Interindividual variations in equieffective doses of a drug are most marked if it is disposed by: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Both glomerular filtration and tubular secretion D. Hepatic metabolism

Last Answer : D. Hepatic metabolism

Which of the following is always true: A. A more potent drug is more efficacious B. A more potent drug is safer C. A more potent drug is clinically superior D. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses

Description : Which of the following is always true: A. A more potent drug is more efficacious B. A more potent drug is safer C. A more potent drug is clinically superior D. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses

Last Answer : D. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses

When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit: A. Ceiling effect B. Desensitization C. Therapeutic window phenomenon D. Nonreceptor mediated action

Description : When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit: A. Ceiling effect B. Desensitization C. Therapeutic window phenomenon D. Nonreceptor mediated action

Last Answer : C. Therapeutic window phenomenon

The following measure can minimise pituitary-adrenal suppression during long-term corticosteroid therapy: A. Use of betamethasone in place of prednisolone B. Use of prednisolone on alternate days C. Division of the daily dose in three equal 8 hourly doses D. Administration of the total daily dose at bed time

Description : The following measure can minimise pituitary-adrenal suppression during long-term corticosteroid therapy: A. Use of betamethasone in place of prednisolone B. Use of prednisolone on alternate days C. Division of ... in three equal 8 hourly doses D. Administration of the total daily dose at bed time

Last Answer : B. Use of prednisolone on alternate days

Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first-pass metabolism: A. Oral B. Sublingual C. Subcutaneous D. Rectal

Description : Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first-pass metabolism: A. Oral B. Sublingual C. Subcutaneous D. Rectal

Last Answer : A. Oral

A drug which produces qualitatively different actions when administered through different routes is: A. Phenytoin sodium B. Hydralazine C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nitroglycerine

Description : A drug which produces qualitatively different actions when administered through different routes is: A. Phenytoin sodium B. Hydralazine C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nitroglycerine

Last Answer : C. Magnesium sulfate

Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first-pass metabolism: A. Oral B. Sublingual C. Subcutaneous D. Rectal

Description : Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first-pass metabolism: A. Oral B. Sublingual C. Subcutaneous D. Rectal

Last Answer : A. Oral

A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Description : A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Last Answer : C. Competitive antagonist

A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Description : A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Last Answer : C. Competitive antagonist

Reflex bronchoconstriction is most likely to occur with the following form of inhaled antiasthma medication: A. Metered dose spray of drug in solution B. Dry powder rotacap C. Nebuliser D. Nebuliser with spacer

Description : Reflex bronchoconstriction is most likely to occur with the following form of inhaled antiasthma medication: A. Metered dose spray of drug in solution B. Dry powder rotacap C. Nebuliser D. Nebuliser with spacer

Last Answer : B. Dry powder rotacap

A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Description : A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Last Answer : B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication

A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Description : A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Last Answer : C. Noncompetitive antagonist

The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Description : The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Last Answer : A. Safety

If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Description : If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Last Answer : D. Highly selective

‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Description : ‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Last Answer : B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

The following statement is not true of ‘potency’ of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by the relative position of its dose-response curve on the dose axis C. It is often not a major consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Description : The following statement is not true of potency' of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by ... consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Last Answer : D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant

Description : The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant

Last Answer : C. Volume of distribution

When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives

Description : When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives

Last Answer : B. 4–5 half lives

If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Description : If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Last Answer : B. × 2

In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Description : In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Last Answer : C. Inhalational

A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Description : A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Last Answer : B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication

A fixed dose combination preparation meant for internal use must not contain the following class of drug: A. Thiazide diuretic B. Fluoroquinolone antimicrobial C. Corticosteroid D. H2 blocker

Description : A fixed dose combination preparation meant for internal use must not contain the following class of drug: A. Thiazide diuretic B. Fluoroquinolone antimicrobial C. Corticosteroid D. H2 blocker

Last Answer : C. Corticosteroid

A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Description : A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Last Answer : C. Noncompetitive antagonist

The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Description : The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Last Answer : A. Safety

If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Description : If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Last Answer : D. Highly selective

‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Description : ‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Last Answer : B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

The following statement is not true of ‘potency’ of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by the relative position of its dose-response curve on the dose axis C. It is often not a major consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Description : The following statement is not true of potency' of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by ... consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Last Answer : D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant

Description : The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant

Last Answer : C. Volume of distribution

When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives

Description : When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives

Last Answer : B. 4–5 half lives

If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Description : If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Last Answer : B. × 2

If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance

Description : If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance

Last Answer : D. Total body clearanc

If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics: A. A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time B. Its clearance value will remain constant C. Its elimination half life will increase with dose D. It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 × half life period

Description : If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics: A. A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time B. Its clearance value will remain constant C. Its elimination half life will increase with dose D. It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 × half life period

Last Answer : B. Its clearance value will remain constant

In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Description : In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Last Answer : C. Inhalational