Isoxsuprine increases limb blood flow in normal individuals, but is of limited efficacy in Buerger’s disease, because in this disease: A. Vasodilator β adrenoceptors are deficient B. There is loss of sympathetic innervation C. Blood flow to the affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction D. The drug is not delivered to the affected site

Isoxsuprine increases limb blood flow in normal individuals, but is of limited efficacy in Buerger’s disease,
because in this disease:
A. Vasodilator β adrenoceptors are deficient
B. There is loss of sympathetic innervation
C. Blood flow to the affected limb is reduced by
organic obstruction
D. The drug is not delivered to the affected site
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Blood flow to the affected limb is reduced by
organic obstruction
by

Related questions

Isoxsuprine increases limb blood flow in normal individuals, but is of limited efficacy in Buerger’s disease, because in this disease: A. Vasodilator β adrenoceptors are deficient B. There is loss of sympathetic innervation C. Blood flow to the affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction D. The drug is not delivered to the affected site

Description : Isoxsuprine increases limb blood flow in normal individuals, but is of limited efficacy in Buerger's disease, because in this disease: A. Vasodilator β adrenoceptors are deficient B. There is loss ... affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction D. The drug is not delivered to the affected site

Last Answer : C. Blood flow to the affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve

Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve

Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Description : Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked ... mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Last Answer : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms

Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil

Description : Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil

Last Answer : D. Sildenafil

Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its: A. Poor efficacy B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis C. Oxytocic action D. Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease

Description : Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its: A. Poor efficacy B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis C. Oxytocic action D. Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease

Last Answer : B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis

While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Last Answer : C. Mephentermine

While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Last Answer : C. Mephentermine

While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Last Answer : C. Mephentermine

Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Description : Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Last Answer : B. Prosthetic heart valves

Anticoagulant medication is indicated in: A. Immobilized elederly patients B. Buerger’s disease C. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis D. All of the above

Description : Anticoagulant medication is indicated in: A. Immobilized elederly patients B. Buerger’s disease C. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Immobilized elederly patients

Advantages of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors as antihypertensive include the following except: A. They tend to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs C. They do not worsen blood lipid profile D. They do not impair work performance

Description : Advantages of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors as antihypertensive include the following except: A. They tend to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal ... . They do not worsen blood lipid profile D. They do not impair work performance

Last Answer : B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy C. Lack of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Description : Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy ... of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Last Answer : D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Description : Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Indicate the drug that is a slow acting low efficacy blood schizontocide that should not be used as a clinical curative: A. Proguanil B. Chloroquine C. Quinine D. Mefloquine

Description : Indicate the drug that is a slow acting low efficacy blood schizontocide that should not be used as a clinical curative: A. Proguanil B. Chloroquine C. Quinine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : A. Proguanil

Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria

Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity C. Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias

Description : Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism ... Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity

The basis for use of β-adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Description : The basis for use of β-adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium

The basis for use of β -adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Description : The basis for use of β -adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium

The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent suppression of gastric acid enhances efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer

The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Description : The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Levodopa

The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia

Description : The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia

Last Answer : A. Histamine release

Select the drug that primarily reduces the static component of urinary obstruction in benign hypertrophy of prostate and takes more than 3 months to exert its beneficial effect: A. Tamsulosin B. Terazosin C. Finasteride D. Amphetamine

Description : Select the drug that primarily reduces the static component of urinary obstruction in benign hypertrophy of prostate and takes more than 3 months to exert its beneficial effect: A. Tamsulosin B. Terazosin C. Finasteride D. Amphetamine

Last Answer : C. Finasteride

In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an alternative so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol

Description : In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an ... so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol

Last Answer : A. Pindolol

In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an alternative so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol

Description : In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an ... so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol

Last Answer : A. Pindolol

The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. It is combined with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration C. Long terminal elimination half-life D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

Description : The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration ... D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

Last Answer : A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin

ntacids administered concurrently reduce efficacy of the following antipeptic ulcer drug: A. Cimetidine B. Colloidal bismuth C. Sucralfate D. Pirenzepine

Description : ntacids administered concurrently reduce efficacy of the following antipeptic ulcer drug: A. Cimetidine B. Colloidal bismuth C. Sucralfate D. Pirenzepine

Last Answer : C. Sucralfate

n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause postural hypotension C. Used alone, they have high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Description : n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause ... high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Last Answer : B. They do not cause postural hypotension

Tolerance does not develop to the vasodilator action of sodium nitroprusside while it develops to glyceryl trinitrate because: A. Intact sod. nitroprusside molecule acts like nitric oxide B. Enzymes which generate nitric oxide from nitroprusside are different C. Sod. nitroprusside has a long duration of action D. Sod. nitroprusside has additional K+ channel opening action

Description : Tolerance does not develop to the vasodilator action of sodium nitroprusside while it develops to glyceryl trinitrate because: A. Intact sod. nitroprusside molecule acts like nitric oxide B. Enzymes which ... a long duration of action D. Sod. nitroprusside has additional K+ channel opening action

Last Answer : B. Enzymes which generate nitric oxide from nitroprusside are different

Health benefits afforded by the combined estrogenprogestin oral contraceptive pill include the following except: A. Reduced menstrual blood loss B. Lower risk of fibrocystic breast disease C. Lower risk of myocardial infarction D. Lower risk of endometrial carcinoma

Description : Health benefits afforded by the combined estrogenprogestin oral contraceptive pill include the following except: A. Reduced menstrual blood loss B. Lower risk of fibrocystic breast disease C. Lower risk of myocardial infarction D. Lower risk of endometrial carcinoma

Last Answer : . Lower risk of myocardial infarction

The following sympathomimetic amine has agonistic action on α 1 + α 2 + β 1 + β 3 adrenoceptors, but not on β 2 receptors: A. Adrenaline B. Noradrenaline C. Isoprenaline D. Phenylephrine

Description : The following sympathomimetic amine has agonistic action on α 1 + α 2 + β 1 + β 3 adrenoceptors, but not on β 2 receptors: A. Adrenaline B. Noradrenaline C. Isoprenaline D. Phenylephrine

Last Answer : B. Noradrenaline

The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: A. Proximal tubule B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Cortical diluting segment D. Collecting ducts

Description : The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: A. Proximal tubule B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Cortical diluting segment D. Collecting ducts

Last Answer : C. Cortical diluting segment

Clozapine is considered to be an atypical neuroleptic because: A. It has weak antidopaminergic action but high antipsychotic efficacy B. Its side effect profile is different from that of chlorpromazine C. It is not a phenothiazine derivative D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Clozapine is considered to be an atypical neuroleptic because: A. It has weak antidopaminergic action but high antipsychotic efficacy B. Its side effect profile is different from that of chlorpromazine C. It is not a phenothiazine derivative D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Beta adrenergic blockers lower intraocular tension by: A. Down regulating adenylyl cyclase in ciliary body through reduced activation of β2 adrenoceptors B. Constricting ciliary blood vessels C. Blocking adrenergic action on trabecular meshwork D. Reducing aqueous formation unrelated to beta adrenoceptor mediation

Description : Beta adrenergic blockers lower intraocular tension by: A. Down regulating adenylyl cyclase in ciliary body through reduced activation of β2 adrenoceptors B. Constricting ciliary blood vessels ... action on trabecular meshwork D. Reducing aqueous formation unrelated to beta adrenoceptor mediation

Last Answer : A. Down regulating adenylyl cyclase in ciliary body through reduced activation of β2 adrenoceptors

Beta adrenergic blockers lower intraocular tension by: A. Down regulating adenylyl cyclase in ciliary body through reduced activation of β2 adrenoceptors B. Constricting ciliary blood vessels C. Blocking adrenergic action on trabecular meshwork D. Reducing aqueous formation unrelated to beta adrenoceptor mediation

Description : Beta adrenergic blockers lower intraocular tension by: A. Down regulating adenylyl cyclase in ciliary body through reduced activation of β2 adrenoceptors B. Constricting ciliary blood vessels ... action on trabecular meshwork D. Reducing aqueous formation unrelated to beta adrenoceptor mediation

Last Answer : A. Down regulating adenylyl cyclase in ciliary body through reduced activation of β2 adrenoceptors

The α2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine

Description : The α2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine

Last Answer : B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location

The α 2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine

Description : The α 2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine

Last Answer : B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location

Raised plasma aldosterone level in CHF contributes to disease progression by exerting the following effects except: A. Fibrotic remodeling of myocardium B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia C. Increasing cardiac preload by Na+ and water retention D. Enhancing cardiotoxicity of sympathetic overactivity

Description : Raised plasma aldosterone level in CHF contributes to disease progression by exerting the following effects except: A. Fibrotic remodeling of myocardium B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia C. ... cardiac preload by Na+ and water retention D. Enhancing cardiotoxicity of sympathetic overactivity

Last Answer : B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia

The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally blocks α1 and α2 adrenoceptors C. It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Description : The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally ... It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade

The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally blocks α1 and α2 adrenoceptors C. It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Description : The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally ... It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade

Which of the following adrenergic inhibitors acts directly on the blood vessels, producing vasodilation? a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting directly on the blood vessel. It is not used in angina and coronary artery disease, however, because it induces tachycardia if not preceded by administration of propranolol and a diuretic.

Description : Which of the following adrenergic inhibitors acts directly on the blood vessels, producing vasodilation? a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting ... through centrally mediated alpha-adrenergic stimulation in the brain, producing blood pressure reduction.

Last Answer : a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting directly on the blood vessel. It is not used in angina and coronary artery disease, however, because it induces tachycardia if not preceded by administration of propranolol and a diuretic.

Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes little myocardial depression and hypotension C. It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct