Indicate the drug that is a slow acting low efficacy
blood schizontocide that should not be used as a
clinical curative:
A. Proguanil
B. Chloroquine
C. Quinine
D. Mefloquine

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Proguanil

Related questions

Description : The following drug should be used only as clinical curative but not as prophylactic in malaria: A. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine B. Proguanil C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : A. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine

Description : Proguanil is not used as a clinical curative in malaria because: A. Its schizontocidal action is slow B. Resistance to proguanil is widespread C. It is more toxic than chloroquine D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Its schizontocidal action is slow

Description : The following drug is a radical curative in vivax malaria: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Mefloquine D. Chloroquine

Last Answer : B. Primaquine

Description : The fastest acting schizontocidal drug among the following is: A. Artemether B. Mefloquine C. Chloroquine D. Proguanil

Last Answer : A. Artemether

Description : elect the drug/combination that you will prescribe as a prophylactic to a resident of non-endemic area who got posted for 6 months to an endemic area with low degree chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum: A. Quinine B. Proguanil + Chloroquine C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Artemisinin

Last Answer : B. Proguanil + Chloroquine

Description : The following drug is a causal prophylactic for falciparum malaria and suppressive prophylactic for vivax malaria: A. Chloroquine B. Mepacrine C. Quinine D. Proguanil

Last Answer : D. Proguanil

Description : The drug of choice for cerebral malaria due to P. falciparum is: A. Quinine B. Mefloquine C. Chloroquine D. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine

Last Answer : A. Quinine

Description : An adult male living in nonmalarious area has to visit an area where chloroquine resistant P. falciparum is prevalent. He is intolerant to mefloquine and his G6PD status is unknown. Select the ... you will prescribe for prophylaxis of malaria: A. Primaquine B. Doxycycline C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine

Last Answer : B. Doxycycline

Description : Erythrocytic schizontocide antimalarial drugs are used as: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Clinical curative C. Radical curative for P.vivax D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Description : Recrudescences attending 3 day artesunate therapy of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria can be prevented by combining it with a single dose of: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Tetracycline D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : D. Mefloquine

Description : Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine should be used as a: A. Clinical curative in areas with chloroquine resistant malaria B. Clinical curative in areas without chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum C. Prophylactic in areas with or without chloroquine resistance D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Clinical curative in areas with chloroquine resistant malaria

Description : Choose the antimalarial drug effective against multidrug resistant P. falciparum, which rapidly terminates an attack of malarial fever, but has a short duration of action, so that recrudescence is common: A. Proguanil B. Mefloquine C. Amodiaquine D. Artemisinin

Last Answer : D. Artemisinin

Description : Clinical applications of quinine include the following except: A. Uncomplicated chloroquine resistant malaria B. Cerebral malaria C. To induce abortion D. Nocturnal leg cramps

Last Answer : C. To induce abortion

Description : Chloroquine acts as: A. Preerythrocytic schizontocide for both P. falciparum and P. vivax B. Erythrocytic schizontocide for both P. falciparum and P. vivax C. Exoerythrocytic schizontocide for P. vivax D. Gametocidal for P. falciparum

Last Answer : B. Erythrocytic schizontocide for both P. falciparum and P. vivax

Description : . All of the following antiprotozoal drugs have been used to treat malaria except: a. Melarsoprol. b. Quinine. c. Mefloquine. d. Chloroquine.

Last Answer : a. Melarsoprol.

Description : If a drug is active against the preerythrocytic stage of the malarial parasite it will be useful as a: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Causal prophylactic C. Clinical curative D. Radical curative

Last Answer : B. Causal prophylactic

Description : Indicate the drug that can be used as an alternative to primaquine for radical cure of vivax malaria: A. Atovaquone B. Bulaquine C. Tetracycline D. Proguanil

Last Answer : B. Bulaquine

Description : The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg ... 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days

Last Answer : C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days

Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria

Description : The following is true of quinine: A. It has a longer elimination half-life than chloroquine B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria C. It is not active against P. vivax D. It should not be used along with sulfa-pyrimethamine

Last Answer : B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria

Description : Chloroquine resistant P. falciparum malaria can be cured by the following drugs except: A. Quinine B. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine C. Primaquine D. Artesunate

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

Description : Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine combination is used as clinical curative but is not recommended for prophylaxis of malaria because of: A. Risk of megaloblastic anaemia due to pyrimethamine B. Risk of severe dermatological reactions to sulfadoxine C. Need for daily administration of the d

Last Answer : B. Risk of severe dermatological reactions to sulfadoxine

Description : Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked ... mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Last Answer : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms

Description : Identify the drug which is NOT used in the treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum : (A.) Artemisinin (B) Primaquine (C) Quinine (D) Mefloquine

Last Answer : (B) Primaquine

Description : The following antimalarial drug is more active against pre-and exoerythrocytic stages of the malarial parasite than against the erythrocytic stage: A. Proguanil B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine D. Halofantrine

Last Answer : B. Primaquine

Description : The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated ... D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells

Description : Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration ... D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

Last Answer : A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin

Description : Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

Description : Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

Description : Isoxsuprine increases limb blood flow in normal individuals, but is of limited efficacy in Buerger's disease, because in this disease: A. Vasodilator β adrenoceptors are deficient B. There is loss ... affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction D. The drug is not delivered to the affected site

Last Answer : C. Blood flow to the affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction

Description : Isoxsuprine increases limb blood flow in normal individuals, but is of limited efficacy in Buerger's disease, because in this disease: A. Vasodilator β adrenoceptors are deficient B. There is loss ... affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction D. The drug is not delivered to the affected site

Last Answer : C. Blood flow to the affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction

Description : Which of the following is a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant: A. Carisoprodol B. Dantrolene sodium C. Quinine D. Decamethonium

Last Answer : A. Carisoprodol

Description : The following drug is effective in hepatic amoebiasis but not in intestinal amoebiasis: A. Chloroquine B. Emetine C. Tetracycline D. Diloxanide furoate

Last Answer : A. Chloroquine

Description : Select the correct statement about primaquine: A. It has no role in falciparum malaria B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria C. It is combined with chloroquine to treat resistant P. falciparum infection D. It is used to prevent recrudescence of falciparum malaria

Last Answer : B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria

Description : A patient of vivax malaria was treated with the standard dose of chloroquine. After 6 weeks he reported back with a relapse. Which drug will you use to treat the relapse episode: A. Chloroquine B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine D. Mefloquin

Last Answer : A. Chloroquine

Description : Drug cumulation is the basis of organ toxicity of the following drug when used for prolonged periods: A. Prednisolone B. Chloroquine C. Aspirin D. Hydralazine

Last Answer : B. Chloroquine

Description : Which of the following is a reserve drug but not a disease modifying drug in rheumatoid arthritis: A. Chloroquine B. Sulfasalazine C. Prednisolone D. Methotrexate

Last Answer : C. Prednisolone

Description : Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in ... a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal

Last Answer : C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer

Description : ntacids administered concurrently reduce efficacy of the following antipeptic ulcer drug: A. Cimetidine B. Colloidal bismuth C. Sucralfate D. Pirenzepine

Last Answer : C. Sucralfate

Description : n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause ... high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Last Answer : B. They do not cause postural hypotension

Description : Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its: A. Poor efficacy B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis C. Oxytocic action D. Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease

Last Answer : B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis

Description : What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally

Last Answer : B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients