Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count
more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s):
A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after
some time
B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic
subjects
C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus
D. All of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. All of the above
by

Related questions

Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count more than 400/μl C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Description : Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count ... asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Last Answer : C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl

Currently, monotherapy with zidovudine is recommended for: A. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count more than 200/μl B. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl C. HIV positive subjects with opportunistic infection D. None of the above

Description : Currently, monotherapy with zidovudine is recommended for: A. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count more than 200/μl B. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl C. HIV positive subjects with opportunistic infection D. None of the above

Last Answer : D. None of the above

Antiretroviral treatment affords the following benefit(s) in HIV infection: A. Increases CD4 leucocyte count B. Reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients C. Increases survival time in AIDS patients D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral treatment affords the following benefit(s) in HIV infection: A. Increases CD4 leucocyte count B. Reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients C. Increases survival time in AIDS patients D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) will help improve most skin conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

Description : Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and ... for the overall treatment of HIV disease; it is not specific for treatment of skin conditions.

Last Answer : a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active ... conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of previously untreated HIV patient consist of: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI C. Three NRTIs D. Any of the above

Description : The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of previously untreated HIV patient consist of: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI C. Three NRTIs D. Any of the above

Last Answer : D. Any of the above

Presently, the goal of antiretroviral therapy is: A. Eradication of HIV from the body of the patient B. Inhibit viral replication to undetectable levels C. Restore immune competence of the patient to effective level D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Presently, the goal of antiretroviral therapy is: A. Eradication of HIV from the body of the patient B. Inhibit viral replication to undetectable levels C. Restore immune competence of the patient to effective level D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates which stage of HIV infection? a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic.

Description : More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates which stage of HIV infection? a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic. b) ... CDC category C - AIDS Less than 200 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category C - AIDS.

Last Answer : a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic.

An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Description : An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Last Answer : B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously

The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the same 3 drugs for another 3 months B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs C. Replace 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Description : The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the ... 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Last Answer : B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs

The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. It is combined with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Description : Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A platelet count of 50,000/µL or more usually ensures hemostasis b. Bleeding time assays assessibility of platelets to perform hemostatic plugs and is determined from a sample of blood drawn in an EDTA coated test tube c. Aspirin therapy can be associated with a bleeding time in the range of 8–15 minutes d. Tests of platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Description : Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A ... platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Tests of platelet function include peripheral platelet counts, bleeding times, and platelet aggregation. Usually, a platelet count of 50,000/mL or more ensures adequate hemostasis ... is not available in most laboratories, probably because of the observer-dependent nature of the test

fected biological sample. Antiretroviral treatment will achieve the following in him: A. Reduce the risk of contracting HIV infection B. Rule out the possibility of contracting HIV infection C. Prevent appearance of HIV seropositivity but not HIV infection in him D. None of the above

Description : fected biological sample. Antiretroviral treatment will achieve the following in him: A. Reduce the risk of contracting HIV infection B. Rule out the possibility of contracting HIV infection C. Prevent appearance of HIV seropositivity but not HIV infection in him D. None of the above

Last Answer : A. Reduce the risk of contracting HIV infection

Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patients C. Adult contacts of sputum positive tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Description : Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult ... tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Last Answer : B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patient

An HIV patient with swollen lymph nodes and CD4 T cell count of would be in stage of HIV disease/AIDS. a. 1,000; stage II b. 700; stage I c. 400; stage III d. 400; stage IV

Description : An HIV patient with swollen lymph nodes and CD4 T cell count of would be in stage of HIV disease/AIDS. a. 1,000; stage II b. 700; stage I c. 400; stage III d. 400; stage IV

Last Answer : a. 1,000; stage II

Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on three factors: the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and ... CD4+ T cells/mm3 or plasma HIV RNA levels exceeding 55,000 copies/mL (RT-PCR assay).

Last Answer : a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of ... : the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Description : The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Last Answer : A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs

Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Description : Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. ... its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Last Answer : C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effect

Which of the following is correct for CD8 T cells? A- CD8 T cells only recognize virus-infected cells B- CD8 T cell receptor recognizes epitopes that are also commonly recognized by B cells C- In the thymus, CD8 T cells undergo positive selection only, whereas CD4 T cells undergo negative selection only D- CD8 T cells can kill individual virus-infected cells in a contact dependent fashion

Description : Which of the following is correct for CD8 T cells? A- CD8 T cells only recognize virus-infected cells B- CD8 T cell receptor recognizes epitopes that are also commonly recognized by B cells ... selection only D- CD8 T cells can kill individual virus-infected cells in a contact dependent fashion

Last Answer : CD8 T cells can kill individual virus-infected cells in a contact dependent fashion

Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Description : Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Last Answer : C. Cardiomyopathy

Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Description : Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent suppression of gastric acid enhances efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer

Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Description : Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Last Answer : B. Diuretic potency

Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Description : Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Last Answer : B. Prosthetic heart valves

Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to β-lactam antibiotics because: A. They produce a β-lactamase which destroys methicillin and related drugs B. They elaborate an amidase which destroys methicillin and related drugs C. They have acquired penicillin binding protein which has low affinity for β-lactam antibiotics D. They are less permeable to β-lactam antibiotics

Description : Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to β-lactam antibiotics because: A. They produce a β-lactamase which destroys methicillin and related drugs B. They elaborate an amidase which destroys ... low affinity for β-lactam antibiotics D. They are less permeable to β-lactam antibiotics

Last Answer : C. They have acquired penicillin binding protein which has low affinity for β-lactam antibioti

Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements

Description : Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements

Last Answer : D. Abnormal movements

Parenteral testosterone therapy in a boy can cause the following adverse effects except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acne C. Cholestatic jaundice D. Precocious puberty

Description : Parenteral testosterone therapy in a boy can cause the following adverse effects except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acne C. Cholestatic jaundice D. Precocious puberty

Last Answer : C. Cholestatic jaundice

The extrapyramidal adverse effect of antipsychotic drug therapy which does not respond to central anticholinergics is: A. Parkinsonism B. Acute muscle dystonia C. Rabbit syndrome D. Tardive dyskinesia

Description : The extrapyramidal adverse effect of antipsychotic drug therapy which does not respond to central anticholinergics is: A. Parkinsonism B. Acute muscle dystonia C. Rabbit syndrome D. Tardive dyskinesia

Last Answer : D. Tardive dyskinesia

Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ACE inhibitors ± digitalis/ diuretic C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ... dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Last Answer : C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

Which of the following adverse effects of neuroleptic drugs is positively correlated to the antipsychotic potency of the different compounds: A. Sedation B. Extrapyramidal motor disturbances C. Postural hypotension D. Lowering of seizure threshold

Description : Which of the following adverse effects of neuroleptic drugs is positively correlated to the antipsychotic potency of the different compounds: A. Sedation B. Extrapyramidal motor disturbances C. Postural hypotension D. Lowering of seizure threshold

Last Answer : B. Extrapyramidal motor disturbances

The constellation of adverse effects associated with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs include the following except: A. Sedation B. Gastric irritation C. Fluid retention D. Rashes

Description : The constellation of adverse effects associated with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs include the following except: A. Sedation B. Gastric irritation C. Fluid retention D. Rashes

Last Answer : A. Sedation

n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause postural hypotension C. Used alone, they have high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Description : n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause ... high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Last Answer : B. They do not cause postural hypotension

Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment of migraine attacks C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

Description : Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment ... resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

Last Answer : C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases

Specific drug therapy to lower serum triglycerides (TG) in a subject with normal LDL-cholesterol level is indicated: A. In all subjects with serum TG> 150 mg/dl B. In subjects with existing coronary artery disease and serum TG > 150 mg/dl C. In subjects with HDL-cholesterol < 40 mg/dl and serum TG > 150 mg/dl D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Specific drug therapy to lower serum triglycerides (TG) in a subject with normal LDL-cholesterol level is indicated: A. In all subjects with serum TG> 150 mg/dl B. In subjects with existing coronary artery disease and serum TG ... < 40 mg/dl and serum TG > 150 mg/dl D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended

Description : What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended

Last Answer : A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy

The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Description : Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs

A higher incidence of adverse effects to cotrimoxazole occurs when this drug is used for: A. Typhoid fever B. Whooping cough C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients D. Chancroid

Description : A higher incidence of adverse effects to cotrimoxazole occurs when this drug is used for: A. Typhoid fever B. Whooping cough C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients D. Chancroid

Last Answer : C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients

Choose the most effective drug for mild intestinal amoebiasis and asymptomatic cyst passers: A. Metronidazole B. Emetine C. Quiniodochlor D. Diloxanide furoate

Description : Choose the most effective drug for mild intestinal amoebiasis and asymptomatic cyst passers: A. Metronidazole B. Emetine C. Quiniodochlor D. Diloxanide furoate

Last Answer : D. Diloxanide furoate

Select the drug that is active against both HIV and hepatitis B virus: A. Lamivudine B. Indinavir C. Didanosine D. Efavirenz

Description : Select the drug that is active against both HIV and hepatitis B virus: A. Lamivudine B. Indinavir C. Didanosine D. Efavirenz

Last Answer : A. Lamivudine

Isoxsuprine increases limb blood flow in normal individuals, but is of limited efficacy in Buerger’s disease, because in this disease: A. Vasodilator β adrenoceptors are deficient B. There is loss of sympathetic innervation C. Blood flow to the affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction D. The drug is not delivered to the affected site

Description : Isoxsuprine increases limb blood flow in normal individuals, but is of limited efficacy in Buerger's disease, because in this disease: A. Vasodilator β adrenoceptors are deficient B. There is loss ... affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction D. The drug is not delivered to the affected site

Last Answer : C. Blood flow to the affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction

Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its: A. Poor efficacy B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis C. Oxytocic action D. Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease

Description : Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its: A. Poor efficacy B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis C. Oxytocic action D. Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease

Last Answer : B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis

Isoxsuprine increases limb blood flow in normal individuals, but is of limited efficacy in Buerger’s disease, because in this disease: A. Vasodilator β adrenoceptors are deficient B. There is loss of sympathetic innervation C. Blood flow to the affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction D. The drug is not delivered to the affected site

Description : Isoxsuprine increases limb blood flow in normal individuals, but is of limited efficacy in Buerger's disease, because in this disease: A. Vasodilator β adrenoceptors are deficient B. There is loss ... affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction D. The drug is not delivered to the affected site

Last Answer : C. Blood flow to the affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction

Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI C. Fluid restriction is recommended so that the antimicrobial drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Description : Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent ... drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Last Answer : B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI

Ganglion blocking drugs are no longer used in therapeutics because: A. They have few and weak pharmacological actions B. They produce many side effects C. They are inactive by oral route D. They have short duration of action

Description : Ganglion blocking drugs are no longer used in therapeutics because: A. They have few and weak pharmacological actions B. They produce many side effects C. They are inactive by oral route D. They have short duration of action

Last Answer : A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own