Which side effect of the oral contraceptive subsides
after 3–4 cycles of continued use:
A. Glucose intolerance
B. Rise in blood pressure
C. Headache
D. Fluid retention

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Headache

Related questions

Description : A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus

Last Answer : C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation

Description : The progestin used in combined oral contraceptive pill is a 19-nortestosterone derivative because: A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own B. They do not produce any metabolic effects C. They produce fewer side effects D. They are longer acting

Last Answer : A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own

Description : The following drug reduces the effect of oral anticoagulants: A. Broad spectrum antibiotic B. Cimetidine C. Aspirin D. Oral contraceptive

Last Answer : D. Oral contraceptive

Description : Metabolic actions of estrogens tend to cause the following except: A. Anabolism B. Impaired glucose tolerance C. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol D. Salt and water retention

Last Answer : C. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol

Description : Health benefits afforded by the combined estrogenprogestin oral contraceptive pill include the following except: A. Reduced menstrual blood loss B. Lower risk of fibrocystic breast disease C. Lower risk of myocardial infarction D. Lower risk of endometrial carcinoma

Last Answer : . Lower risk of myocardial infarction

Description : Adverse consequences of excess mineralocorticoid action include the following except: A. Na+ and water retention B. Acidosis C. Aggravation of CHF associated myocardial fibrosis D. Rise in blood pressure

Last Answer : B. Acidosis

Description : Oral contraceptive use increases the risk of occurrence of the following diseases except: A. Hypertension B. Leg vein thrombosis C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Gall stones

Last Answer : C. Endometrial carcinoma

Description : Which of the following is advised when a woman on combined oral contraceptive pill misses a dose: A. Continue with the course without regard to the missed dose B. Take 2 pills the next ... for the remaining part of the course D. Discontinue the course and use alternative method of contraception

Last Answer : Take 2 pills the next day and continue with the course

Description : The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and ... Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

Last Answer : B. Suppression of FSH and LH release

Description : Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive

Last Answer : . Chloramphenicol

Description : The most prominent and dose related side effect of salbutamol is: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Muscle tremor C. Hyperglycaemia D. Central nervous system stimulation

Last Answer : B. Muscle tremor

Description : 16.3 Actions of growth hormone include the following except: A. Increased protein synthesis B. Increased fat utilization C. Increased carbohydrate utilization D. Glucose intolerance

Last Answer : C. Increased carbohydrate utilization

Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Last Answer : C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours

Description : he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to ... release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori

Last Answer : B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect

Description : What is TRUE about Benzodiazepine and diazepam in 5-10mg oral dose used for oral sedation in dentistry: A. Good analgesic effect if given 1 hour prior to dental sessions B. Would be reversed ... Benzodiazepam C. Post operative headache D. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects

Last Answer : B. Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a Benzodiazepam

Description : Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid ... causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : A 19 year-old female is referred following a visit to the dentist where marked erosion of her teeth was noted. She was entirely asymptomatic and her only medication was the oral contraceptive pill ... ) Bulimia nervosa 2) Conn's syndrome 3) Laxative abuse 4) Pregnancy 5) Primary hypoparathyroidism

Last Answer : Answers-5 This patient has tooth erosion associated with hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis and hypocalcaemia. This suggests a diagnosis of hypoparathyroidism. Conn's is unlikely in this age group, is ... raised alkaline phosphatase would not be expected. Early pregnancy would not fit this picture.

Description : Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers ... 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Last Answer : B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus

Description : The constellation of adverse effects associated with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs include the following except: A. Sedation B. Gastric irritation C. Fluid retention D. Rashes

Last Answer : A. Sedation

Description : The most common and important undesirable effect of injectable contraceptive depot medroxyprogesterone acetate is: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding C. Venous thrombosis D. Hypertension

Last Answer : B. Disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding

Description : The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Loose motions C. Constipation D. Urticaria

Last Answer : B. Loose motions

Description : The side effect which primarily limits acceptability of oral iron therapy is: A. Epigastric pain and bowel upset B. Black stools C. Staining of teeth D. Metallic taste

Last Answer : A. Epigastric pain and bowel upset

Description : Testosterone therapy started in a boy of 8 years and continued till puberty is likely to: A. Increase adult stature B. Reduce adult stature C. Have no effect on adult stature D. Cause hypertrophy of penis

Last Answer : B. Reduce adult stature

Description : The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is: A. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone B. Rise in blood pressure due to increased noradrenaline content of adrenergic nerve endings C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone

Description : The following adverse effect of corticosteroids is mainly due to their mineralocorticoid action: A. Osteoporosis B. Rise in blood pressure C. ‘Moon face’ D. Increased susceptibility to infection

Last Answer : B. Rise in blood pressure

Description : A 55-year-old male undergoes a total abdominal colectomy. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the hormonal response to the surgical procedure? a. Adrenocorticotropic ... in serum insulin and a fall in glucagon accelerate hepatic glucose production and maintain gluconeogenesis

Last Answer : Answer: a, c One of the earliest consequence of a surgical procedure is the rise in levels of circulating cortisol that occur in response to a sudden outpouring of ACTH ... hepatic glucose production, and, with other hormones (epinephrine and glucocorticoids), gluconeogenesis is maintained

Description : Side effects of cyclic progestin therapy include the following except: A. Headache B. Gastroesophageal reflux C. Breast dyscomfort D. Irregular bleeding

Last Answer : D. Irregular bleeding

Description : The success of oral rehydration therapy of diarrhoea depends upon the following process in the intestinal mucosa: A. Sodium pump mediated Na+ absorption B. Glucose coupled Na+ absorption C. Bicarbonate coupled Na+ absorption D. Passive Na+ diffusion secondary to nutrient absorption

Last Answer : B. Glucose coupled Na+ absorption

Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia

Description : When a megohmmeter is used to test insulation, the gradual rise of the pointer reading as a result of continued cranking, is caused by _____________. A. good conductor resistance B. the ... insulation C. the inductive reactance of the windings D. the dielectric-absorption effect of the insulation

Last Answer : Answer: D

Description : Continued intake of excessive amounts of vitamin A especially in children produces (A) Irritability (B) Anorexia (C) Headache (D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : D

Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect

Description : In maxilla fracture, if intra cranial pressure increases:** A. It is normal B. Typically associated with tachycardia C. Associated with blood pressure D. Usually subsides spontaneously E. Typically associated with constricted and un-reactive pupil

Last Answer : C. Associated with blood pressure

Description : On stoppage of the combined estrogen-progestin contraceptive pill, fertility returns after: A. 1–2 months B. 4–6 months C. 6–12 months D. Uncertain period

Last Answer : A. 1–2 months

Description : A 30-year-old woman suffering from endogenous depression improved after one month of treatment with amitriptyline. How long the drug should be continued: A. 1-2 weeks B. 6-12 months C. 2-3 years D. Life long

Last Answer : B. 6-12 months

Description : The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration ... warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time

Description : The primary reason for not using ethionamide as a first line antitubercular drug is: A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis B. It is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal C. Ethionamide resistance has become widespread D. It has to be given by injection

Last Answer : A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis

Description : Angiotensin II plays a key role in the following risk factor for ischaemic heart disease: A. Hypercholesterolemia B. Ventricular hypertrophy C. Carbohydrate intolerance D. Cardiac arrhythmia

Last Answer : B. Ventricular hypertrophy

Description : Chlorpropamide is not a preferred sulfonylurea because: A. Hypoglycaemic reaction is more common with it B. Incidence of alcohol intolerance reaction is higher with it C. It can produce cholestatic jaundice D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : An immunologically mediated reaction to a drug producing stereotyped symptoms unrelated to its pharmacodynamic actions is: A. Hypersensitivity B. Supersensitivity C. Intolerance D. Idiosyncrasy

Last Answer : A. Hypersensitivity

Description : The following contraceptive acts primarily by interfering with implantation of blastocyst: A. Gossypol B. Centchroman C. Combined estrogen-progestin pill D. Phased pill

Last Answer : B. Centchroman

Description : The following has been found to act as a male contraceptive without affecting libido or potency: A. Cyproterone acetate B. Goserelin C. Centchroman D. Gossypol

Last Answer : D. Gossypol

Description : The purpose/purposes served by the progestin component of the combined estrogen + progestin contraceptive pill is/are: A. Suppression of ovulation B. Prompt bleeding at the end of the course C. Blockade of increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Which of the following can act as a single dose postcoital contraceptive: A. Clomiphene citrate B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate

Last Answer : B. Mifepristone

Description : Budesonide is a: A. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug B. High ceiling diuretic C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma D. Contraceptive

Last Answer : C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma

Description : Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Last Answer : D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Description : Choose the correct statement about severity of side effects to oral iron medication: A. Ferrous salts are better tolerated than ferric salts B. Complex organic salts of iron are better ... better tolerated than tablets D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication

Last Answer : D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication

Description : Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability

Description : Ganglion blocking drugs are no longer used in therapeutics because: A. They have few and weak pharmacological actions B. They produce many side effects C. They are inactive by oral route D. They have short duration of action

Last Answer : A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own

Description : Ganglion blocking drugs are no longer used in therapeutics because: A. They have few and weak pharmacological actions B. They produce many side effects C. They are inactive by oral route D. They have short duration of action

Last Answer : B. They produce many side effects