Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers blood glucose in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Choose the correct statement about nateglinide:
A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug
B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes
mellitus
C. It lowers blood glucose in both type 1 and
type 2 diabetes mellitus
D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes
and adipocytes
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes
mellitus
by

Related questions

Choose the correct statement(s) about pioglitazone: A. It acts as an agonist on nuclear paroxisome proliferator receptor γ B. It enhances transcription of insulin responsive genes C. It lowers blood sugar in type 2 diabetes mellitus without causing hyperinsulinemia D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about pioglitazone: A. It acts as an agonist on nuclear paroxisome proliferator receptor γ B. It enhances transcription of insulin responsive genes C. It lowers blood sugar in type 2 diabetes mellitus without causing hyperinsulinemia D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is: A. Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes B. Hyperinsulinemia C. Lactic acidosis D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases

Description : The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is: A. Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes B. Hyperinsulinemia C. Lactic acidosis D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases

Last Answer : D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases

Which of the following is not a sulfonylurea but acts by analogous mechanism to bring about quick and brief insulin release that is useful for normalizing meal time glycaemic excursions in type 2 diabetes mellitus: A. Glimepiride B. Miglitol C. Repaglinide D. Rosiglitazone

Description : Which of the following is not a sulfonylurea but acts by analogous mechanism to bring about quick and brief insulin release that is useful for normalizing meal time glycaemic excursions in type 2 diabetes mellitus: A. Glimepiride B. Miglitol C. Repaglinide D. Rosiglitazone

Last Answer : C. Repaglinide

Hypoglycaemic coma can occur (A) In untreated diabetes mellitus (B) In starvation (C) After overdose of oral hypoglycaemic drugs (D) After overdose of insulin

Description : Hypoglycaemic coma can occur (A) In untreated diabetes mellitus (B) In starvation (C) After overdose of oral hypoglycaemic drugs (D) After overdose of insulin

Last Answer : Answer : D

The present status of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus is: A. They are the first choice drug in all cases B. They should be prescribed only if the patient refuses insulin injections C. They are used only in type I diabetes mellitus D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics

Description : The present status of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus is: A. They are the first choice drug in all cases B. They should be prescribed only if the patient refuses insulin injections C. ... I diabetes mellitus D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics

Last Answer : D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics

Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Description : Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Last Answer : C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics

Choose the correct statement about lovastatin: A. It markedly lowers plasma triglyceride with little effect on cholesterol level B. It is used as an adjuvant to gemfibrozil for type III hyperlipoproteinemia C. It is not effective in diabetes associated hypercholesterolemia D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis

Description : Choose the correct statement about lovastatin: A. It markedly lowers plasma triglyceride with little effect on cholesterol level B. It is used as an adjuvant to gemfibrozil for type III ... hypercholesterolemia D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis

Last Answer : D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis

The following feature disfavours use of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus: A. Age at onset of disease over 40 years B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day C. Fasting blood sugar level between 100–200 mg/dl D. Associated obesity

Description : The following feature disfavours use of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus: A. Age at onset of disease over 40 years B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day C. Fasting blood sugar level between 100–200 mg/dl D. Associated obesity

Last Answer : B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day

In diabetic patients, round the clock tight control of hyperglycaemia achieved by multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps: A. Prevents macrovascular disease more effectively B. Is recommended in all type 2 diabetes patients C. Is associated with higher incidence of hypoglycaemic reactions D. Both A and C are correct

Description : In diabetic patients, round the clock tight control of hyperglycaemia achieved by multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps: A. Prevents macrovascular disease more effectively B. Is recommended ... Is associated with higher incidence of hypoglycaemic reactions D. Both A and C are correct

Last Answer : D. Both A and C are correct

Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 2 diabetes (previously referred to as non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [NIDDM])? a) Can control blood glucose through diet and exercise Oral hypoglycemic agents may improve blood glucose levels if dietary modification and exercise are unsuccessful.

Description : Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 2 diabetes (previously referred to as non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [NIDDM])? a) Can control blood glucose ... islet cell antibodies Individuals with Type 2 diabetes do not demonstrate islet cell antibodies.

Last Answer : a) Can control blood glucose through diet and exercise Oral hypoglycemic agents may improve blood glucose levels if dietary modification and exercise are unsuccessful.

The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Description : The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Last Answer : A. Are more potent

Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. Serum lithium levels are lowered by concurrent administration of NSAIDs D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. ... D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Last Answer : D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Choose the correct statement about trimetazidine: A. It is a novel calcium channel blocker B. It improves tissue perfusion by modifying rheological property of blood C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about trimetazidine: A. It is a novel calcium channel blocker B. It improves tissue perfusion by modifying rheological property of blood C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms

Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of diabetes mellitus? (a) Uremia and Ketonuria (b) Uremia and Renal Calculi (c) Ketonuria and Glycosuria (d) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia

Description : Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of diabetes mellitus? (a) Uremia and Ketonuria (b) Uremia and Renal Calculi (c) Ketonuria and Glycosuria (d) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia

Last Answer : (c) Ketonuria and Glycosuria

The thiazolidinediones are mainly used as: A. Sole drug in type 1 diabetes mellitus B. Sole drug in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Addon drug to a sulfonylurea and/or a biguanide in type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Addon drug to insulin in type 1 diabetes mellitus (p. 250) 18.33 1 8 . 3 3 C 18.34 1 8 . 3 4 B 18.35 1 8 . 3 5 D 18.36 1 8 . 3 6 C

Description : The thiazolidinediones are mainly used as: A. Sole drug in type 1 diabetes mellitus B. Sole drug in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Addon drug to a sulfonylurea and/or a biguanide in type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Addon drug to insulin in type 1 ... 18.34 1 8 . 3 4 B 18.35 1 8 . 3 5 D 18.36 1 8 . 3 6 C

Last Answer : C. Addon drug to a sulfonylurea and/or a biguanide in type 2 diabetes mellitus

Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Description : Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Last Answer : A. Reducing insulin release

Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Description : Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Last Answer : B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment

In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the following drug can vitiate glycaemia control: A. Prednisolone B. Prazosin C. Paracetamol D. Phenytoin

Description : In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the following drug can vitiate glycaemia control: A. Prednisolone B. Prazosin C. Paracetamol D. Phenytoin

Last Answer : A. Prednisolone

The following vasodilator(s) act(s) by opening K+ channels in the vascular smooth muscle: A. Dipyridamole B. Minoxidil C. Diazoxide D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Description : The following vasodilator(s) act(s) by opening K+ channels in the vascular smooth muscle: A. Dipyridamole B. Minoxidil C. Diazoxide D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

Choose the correct statement about lamotrigine: A. It is a dopaminergic agonist used in parkinsonism B. It acts by blocking NMDA-type of glutamate receptors C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug D. It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures, but worsens absence seizures

Description : Choose the correct statement about lamotrigine: A. It is a dopaminergic agonist used in parkinsonism B. It acts by blocking NMDA-type of glutamate receptors C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug D. It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures, but worsens absence seizures

Last Answer : C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug

The 1st phase of insulin release from pancreatic β cells is augmented by: A. Glibenclamide B. Metformin C. Nateglinide D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : The 1st phase of insulin release from pancreatic β cells is augmented by: A. Glibenclamide B. Metformin C. Nateglinide D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : C. Nateglinide

Tolerance does not develop to the vasodilator action of sodium nitroprusside while it develops to glyceryl trinitrate because: A. Intact sod. nitroprusside molecule acts like nitric oxide B. Enzymes which generate nitric oxide from nitroprusside are different C. Sod. nitroprusside has a long duration of action D. Sod. nitroprusside has additional K+ channel opening action

Description : Tolerance does not develop to the vasodilator action of sodium nitroprusside while it develops to glyceryl trinitrate because: A. Intact sod. nitroprusside molecule acts like nitric oxide B. Enzymes which ... a long duration of action D. Sod. nitroprusside has additional K+ channel opening action

Last Answer : B. Enzymes which generate nitric oxide from nitroprusside are different

Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization :

Description : Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization :

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Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilisation. (a) Insulin (b) Glucagon (c) Secretin (d) Gastrin

Description : Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilisation. (a) Insulin (b) Glucagon (c) Secretin (d) Gastrin

Last Answer : (a) Insulin

Methyldopa lowers BP by: A. Inhibiting dopa decarboxylase in adrenergic nerve endings B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone C. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline which acts as a false transmitter in peripheral adrenergic nerve endings D. Activating vascular dopamine receptors

Description : Methyldopa lowers BP by: A. Inhibiting dopa decarboxylase in adrenergic nerve endings B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone C. Generating α-methyl ... as a false transmitter in peripheral adrenergic nerve endings D. Activating vascular dopamine receptors

Last Answer : B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone

Gemfibrozil has the following features except: A. It lowers plasma LDL cholesterol to a greater extent than triglycerides B. It tends to raise plasma HDL-cholesterol level C. It is a first line drug for type III, type IV and type V hyperlipoproteinemia D. It reduces the incidence of myocardial infarctio

Description : Gemfibrozil has the following features except: A. It lowers plasma LDL cholesterol to a greater extent than triglycerides B. It tends to raise plasma HDL-cholesterol level C. It is a first ... type III, type IV and type V hyperlipoproteinemia D. It reduces the incidence of myocardial infarctio

Last Answer : A. It lowers plasma LDL cholesterol to a greater extent than triglycerides

Select the correct statement. (a) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis. (b) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia. (c) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes. (d) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia

Description : Select the correct statement. (a) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis. (b) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia. (c) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes. (d) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia

Last Answer : (a) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.

Choose the correct statement(s) about cefepime: A. It is a 4th generation cephalosporin B. It is active against many bacteria resistant to 3rd generation celphalosporins C. It is active by the oral route D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about cefepime: A. It is a 4th generation cephalosporin B. It is active against many bacteria resistant to 3rd generation celphalosporins C. It is active by the oral route D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Description : Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which of the following is not a specific indication for the more expensive monocomponent/human insulins: A. Insulin resistance B. Pregnant diabetic C. Sulfonylurea maintained diabetic posted for surgery D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Description : Which of the following is not a specific indication for the more expensive monocomponent/human insulins: A. Insulin resistance B. Pregnant diabetic C. Sulfonylurea maintained diabetic posted for surgery D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Last Answer : D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Description : Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Description : Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Last Answer : D. Hypoglycaemia

The most prominent and dose related side effect of salbutamol is: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Muscle tremor C. Hyperglycaemia D. Central nervous system stimulation

Description : The most prominent and dose related side effect of salbutamol is: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Muscle tremor C. Hyperglycaemia D. Central nervous system stimulation

Last Answer : B. Muscle tremor

Which of the following is seen at low (analgesic) doses of aspirin: A. Respiratory stimulation B. Increased occult blood loss in stools C. Increased cardiac output D. Hyperglycaemia

Description :  Which of the following is seen at low (analgesic) doses of aspirin: A. Respiratory stimulation B. Increased occult blood loss in stools C. Increased cardiac output D. Hyperglycaemia

Last Answer : B. Increased occult blood loss in stools

Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality C. They compromise quality of life more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Description : Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They ... more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Last Answer : B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality

The side effect which primarily limits acceptability of oral iron therapy is: A. Epigastric pain and bowel upset B. Black stools C. Staining of teeth D. Metallic taste

Description : The side effect which primarily limits acceptability of oral iron therapy is: A. Epigastric pain and bowel upset B. Black stools C. Staining of teeth D. Metallic taste

Last Answer : A. Epigastric pain and bowel upset

Prolonged lithium therapy can cause: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Goiter C. Parkinsonism D. Gout

Description : Prolonged lithium therapy can cause: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Goiter C. Parkinsonism D. Gout

Last Answer : B. Goiter

Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Description : Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Last Answer : B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomitin

Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Description : Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. ... iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Last Answer : C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy

Choose the correct statement about severity of side effects to oral iron medication: A. Ferrous salts are better tolerated than ferric salts B. Complex organic salts of iron are better tolerated than inorganic salts C. Liquid preparations of iron are better tolerated than tablets D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication

Description : Choose the correct statement about severity of side effects to oral iron medication: A. Ferrous salts are better tolerated than ferric salts B. Complex organic salts of iron are better ... better tolerated than tablets D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication

Last Answer : D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication

Choose the correct statement about codeine: A. It has a lower oral: parenteral activity ratio than morphine B. It is devoid of abuse liability C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine D. It is a more potent antitussive than morphine

Description : Choose the correct statement about codeine: A. It has a lower oral: parenteral activity ratio than morphine B. It is devoid of abuse liability C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine D. It is a more potent antitussive than morphine

Last Answer : C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine

Which of the following statements is NOT true about diabetes mellitus? A) Type II diabetes is much more common than type I. B) Insulin injections are required in both type I and type II diabetes. C) Type I diabetes occurs as a result of destruction of the insulin-producing cells. D) One method of treating type II diabetes is exercise and a low-fat, low-sugar diet. E) Symptoms of diabetes include excessive thirst, frequent urination, and glucose in the urine.

Description : Which of the following statements is NOT true about diabetes mellitus? A) Type II diabetes is much more common than type I. B) Insulin injections are required in both type I and type II ... -sugar diet. E) Symptoms of diabetes include excessive thirst, frequent urination, and glucose in the urine.

Last Answer : B) Insulin injections are required in both type I and type II diabetes.

___________ antihypertensive therapy should be avoided in type-1 diabetes mellitus a) ACE inhibitors b) High dose diuretics c) Centrally acting d) calcium channel blockers

Description : ___________ antihypertensive therapy should be avoided in type-1 diabetes mellitus a) ACE inhibitors b) High dose diuretics c) Centrally acting d) calcium channel blockers

Last Answer : c) Centrally acting  

A man suffering from diabetes mellitus drinks water more frequently as he has to eliminate from the blood extra (1) glucose (2) insulin (4) glucagon (4) salt

Description : A man suffering from diabetes mellitus drinks water more frequently as he has to eliminate from the blood extra (1) glucose (2) insulin (4) glucagon (4) salt

Last Answer : (1) glucose Explanation: The diabetic person has higher sugar in blood. Glucose is a form of sugar.

What is true of nicotinic acid as well as nicotinamide: A. Both possess vitamin B3 activity B. Both cause cutaneous vasodilatation C. Both lower plasma triglyceride and VLDL levels D. Both cause hyperglycaemia after prolonged medication

Description : What is true of nicotinic acid as well as nicotinamide: A. Both possess vitamin B3 activity B. Both cause cutaneous vasodilatation C. Both lower plasma triglyceride and VLDL levels D. Both cause hyperglycaemia after prolonged medication

Last Answer : A. Both possess vitamin B3 activity

Oral mucosa and skin pigmentation occurs in patient with:** A. Diabetes mellitus B. Addison’s disease C. Multiple myeloma D. Squamous cell carcinoma E. Bright’s disease F. Cushing’s disease

Description : Oral mucosa and skin pigmentation occurs in patient with:** A. Diabetes mellitus B. Addison’s disease C. Multiple myeloma D. Squamous cell carcinoma E. Bright’s disease F. Cushing’s disease

Last Answer : B. Addison’s disease

Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria