he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect C. It can inhibit insulin release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori

he following is true of nifedipine except:
A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in
elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy
B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular
action to cause ankle oedema as side effect
C. It can inhibit insulin release from pancreas
D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase
the frequency of angina pectori
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular
action to cause ankle oedema as side effect
by

Related questions

The following drug has been found to improve urine flow in elderly males with benign prostatic hypertrophy: A. Nifedipine B. Prazosin C. Disopyramide D. Imipramine

Description : The following drug has been found to improve urine flow in elderly males with benign prostatic hypertrophy: A. Nifedipine B. Prazosin C. Disopyramide D. Imipramine

Last Answer : B. Prazosin

Conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone by the enzyme 5α-reductase is required for the following actions except: A. Formation of male external genitalia in the foetus B. Prostatic hypertrophy in elderly males C. Pubertal changes in the male adolescent D. Spermatogenesis

Description : Conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone by the enzyme 5α-reductase is required for the following actions except: A. Formation of male external genitalia in the foetus B. Prostatic hypertrophy in elderly males C. Pubertal changes in the male adolescent D. Spermatogenesis

Last Answer : D. Spermatogenesis

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective a adrenergic blockers are not because (a) It is the only orally active a blocker (b) It improves plasma lipid profile (c) It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release (d) It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective a adrenergic blockers are not because (a) It is the only orally active a blocker (b) It improves plasma lipid profile (c) It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release (d) It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : Ans: C

The following is true of heparin except: A. Sudden stoppage of continuous heparin therapy causes rebound increase in blood coagulability B. High doses of heparin inhibit platelet aggregation C. Heparin is the physiologically active circulating anticoagulant D. Heparin clears lipemic plasma in vivo but not in vitro

Description : The following is true of heparin except: A. Sudden stoppage of continuous heparin therapy causes rebound increase in blood coagulability B. High doses of heparin inhibit platelet aggregation ... active circulating anticoagulant D. Heparin clears lipemic plasma in vivo but not in vitro

Last Answer : C. Heparin is the physiologically active circulating anticoagulant

For limiting cerebral edema due to brain tumour, the preferred corticosteroids are betamethasone/dexamethasone because: A. They do not cause Na+ and water retention B. They are more potent C. They can be administered intravenously D. They inhibit brain tumours

Description : For limiting cerebral edema due to brain tumour, the preferred corticosteroids are betamethasone/dexamethasone because: A. They do not cause Na+ and water retention B. They are more potent C. They can be administered intravenously D. They inhibit brain tumours

Last Answer : A. They do not cause Na+ and water retention

Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid excretion C. It causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Description : Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid ... causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

In patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy, finasteride exerts the following action/actions: A. Reduces size of the prostate gland B. Increases peak urinary flow rate C. Relaxes vesical sphincter D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : In patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy, finasteride exerts the following action/actions: A. Reduces size of the prostate gland B. Increases peak urinary flow rate C. Relaxes vesical sphincter D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Description : Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl- cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C ... in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Last Answer : C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K

Thyrotropin exerts the following actions on the thyroid gland except: A. Increases vascularity B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin C. Induces hyperplasia and hypertrophy D. Promotes iodide trappin

Description : Thyrotropin exerts the following actions on the thyroid gland except: A. Increases vascularity B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin C. Induces hyperplasia and hypertrophy D. Promotes iodide trappin

Last Answer : B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin

16.18 Thyrotropin exerts the following actions on the thyroid gland except: A. Increases vascularity B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin C. Induces hyperplasia and hypertrophy D. Promotes iodide trapping

Description : 16.18 Thyrotropin exerts the following actions on the thyroid gland except: A. Increases vascularity B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin C. Induces hyperplasia and hypertrophy D. Promotes iodide trapping

Last Answer : B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin

Adverse consequences of excess mineralocorticoid action include the following except: A. Na+ and water retention B. Acidosis C. Aggravation of CHF associated myocardial fibrosis D. Rise in blood pressure

Description : Adverse consequences of excess mineralocorticoid action include the following except: A. Na+ and water retention B. Acidosis C. Aggravation of CHF associated myocardial fibrosis D. Rise in blood pressure

Last Answer : B. Acidosis

Which of the following is a steroid 5α-reductase inhibitor that has been found useful in benign prostatic hypertrophy and male pattern baldness: A. Flutamide B. Finasteride C. Prazosin D. Minoxidil

Description : Which of the following is a steroid 5α-reductase inhibitor that has been found useful in benign prostatic hypertrophy and male pattern baldness: A. Flutamide B. Finasteride C. Prazosin D. Minoxidil

Last Answer : B. Finasteride

Select the drug which can improve urinary flow rate in benign prostatic hypertrophy without affecting prostate size: A. Amphetamine B. Prazosin C. Finasteride D. Goserelin

Description : Select the drug which can improve urinary flow rate in benign prostatic hypertrophy without affecting prostate size: A. Amphetamine B. Prazosin C. Finasteride D. Goserelin

Last Answer : B. Prazosin

Select the drug which can improve urinary flow rate in benign prostatic hypertrophy without affecting prostate size: A. Amphetamine B. Prazosin C. Finasteride D. Goserelin

Description : Select the drug which can improve urinary flow rate in benign prostatic hypertrophy without affecting prostate size: A. Amphetamine B. Prazosin C. Finasteride D. Goserelin

Last Answer : B. Prazosin

Adrenergic β1 selective blockers offer the following advantages except: A. Lower propensity to cause bronchospasm B. Less prone to produce cold hands and feet as side effect C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris D. Less liable to impair exercise capacity

Description : Adrenergic β1 selective blockers offer the following advantages except: A. Lower propensity to cause bronchospasm B. Less prone to produce cold hands and feet as side effect C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris D. Less liable to impair exercise capacity

Last Answer : C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris

Adrenergic β 1 selective blockers offer the following advantages except: A. Lower propensity to cause bronchospasm B. Less prone to produce cold hands and feet as side effect C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris D. Less liable to impair exercise capacity

Description : Adrenergic β 1 selective blockers offer the following advantages except: A. Lower propensity to cause bronchospasm B. Less prone to produce cold hands and feet as side effect C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris D. Less liable to impair exercise capacity

Last Answer : C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris

Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following in the renal tubular cell: A. Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter B. Na+-Cl– symporter C. Na+-H+ antiporter D. Na+ K+ ATPase

Description : Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following in the renal tubular cell: A. Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter B. Na+-Cl– symporter C. Na+-H+ antiporter D. Na+ K+ ATPase

Last Answer : A. Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter

A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but blood sugar level and lipid profile were normal. Select the most suitable antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Description : A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but ... antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Last Answer : C. Atenolol

The following is true of raloxifene except: A. It acts as an estrogen agonist in bone B. It exerts estrogen antagonistic action on endometrium C. It increases risk of developing breast cancer D. It can induce/aggravate menopausal hot flushes

Description : The following is true of raloxifene except: A. It acts as an estrogen agonist in bone B. It exerts estrogen antagonistic action on endometrium C. It increases risk of developing breast cancer D. It can induce/aggravate menopausal hot flushes

Last Answer : C. It has additional androgenic acitivity

If a drug undergoes net tubular secretion, its renal clearance will be: A. More than the glomerular filtration rate B. Equal to the glomerular filtration rate C. Less than the glomerular filtration rate D. Equal to the rate of urine formation

Description : If a drug undergoes net tubular secretion, its renal clearance will be: A. More than the glomerular filtration rate B. Equal to the glomerular filtration rate C. Less than the glomerular filtration rate D. Equal to the rate of urine formation

Last Answer : A. More than the glomerular filtration rate

The following is true of proton pump inhibitors except: A. They are the most effective drugs for Zolinger Ellison syndrome B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa C. They inhibit growth of H. pylori in stomach D. They have no effect on gastric motilit

Description : The following is true of proton pump inhibitors except: A. They are the most effective drugs for Zolinger Ellison syndrome B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa C. They inhibit growth of H. pylori in stomach D. They have no effect on gastric motilit

Last Answer : B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa

Glucagon release from pancreas is stimulated by: A. High blood glucose level B. Insulin C. Somatostatin D. Adrenaline

Description : Glucagon release from pancreas is stimulated by: A. High blood glucose level B. Insulin C. Somatostatin D. Adrenaline

Last Answer : D. Adrenaline

Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: A. Nifedipine B. Felodipine C. Verapamil D. Isosorbide mononitrate

Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: A. Nifedipine B. Felodipine C. Verapamil D. Isosorbide mononitrate

Last Answer : C. Verapami

For limiting cerebral edema due to brain tumour, the preferred corticosteroids are betamenthasone/dexamethasone because (a) They do not cause Na+ and water retention (b) They are more potent (c) They can be administered intravenously (d) They inhibit brain tumours

Description : For limiting cerebral edema due to brain tumour, the preferred corticosteroids are betamenthasone/dexamethasone because (a) They do not cause Na+ and water retention (b) They are more potent (c) They can be administered intravenously (d) They inhibit brain tumours

Last Answer : Ans: A

An 80 year old male presented with dull aching loin pain & interrupted voiding of urine. BUN and creatinine were increased. US revealed a bilateral hydronephrosis. What is the most probable Dx? a) Stricture of the urethra b) Urinary bladder tumor c) BPH d) Pelvic CA e) Renal stone

Description : An 80 year old male presented with dull aching loin pain & interrupted voiding of urine. BUN and creatinine were increased. US revealed a bilateral hydronephrosis. What is the most probable Dx? a) Stricture of the urethra b) Urinary bladder tumor c) BPH d) Pelvic CA e) Renal stone

Last Answer : c) BPH

Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its: A. Poor efficacy B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis C. Oxytocic action D. Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease

Description : Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its: A. Poor efficacy B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis C. Oxytocic action D. Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease

Last Answer : B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis

The obstructive and irritative symptom complex caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy is termed a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, and a sensation that the bladder has not completely emptied.

Description : The obstructive and irritative symptom complex caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy is termed a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, ... . d) prostatectomy. Prostatectomy refers to the surgical removal of the prostate gland.

Last Answer : a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, and a sensation that the bladder has not completely emptied.

Testosterone therapy started in a boy of 8 years and continued till puberty is likely to: A. Increase adult stature B. Reduce adult stature C. Have no effect on adult stature D. Cause hypertrophy of penis

Description : Testosterone therapy started in a boy of 8 years and continued till puberty is likely to: A. Increase adult stature B. Reduce adult stature C. Have no effect on adult stature D. Cause hypertrophy of penis

Last Answer : B. Reduce adult stature

Raised plasma aldosterone level in CHF contributes to disease progression by exerting the following effects except: A. Fibrotic remodeling of myocardium B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia C. Increasing cardiac preload by Na+ and water retention D. Enhancing cardiotoxicity of sympathetic overactivity

Description : Raised plasma aldosterone level in CHF contributes to disease progression by exerting the following effects except: A. Fibrotic remodeling of myocardium B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia C. ... cardiac preload by Na+ and water retention D. Enhancing cardiotoxicity of sympathetic overactivity

Last Answer : B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia

Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme: A. Chlorpheniramine B. Promethazine C. Astemizole D. Loratadine

Description : Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme: A. Chlorpheniramine B. Promethazine C. Astemizole D. Loratadine

Last Answer : C. Astemizole

Insulin is required for the active uptake of glucose by most of the cells except (A) Muscle cells (B) Renal tubular cells (C) Adipocytes (D) Liver cells

Description : Insulin is required for the active uptake of glucose by most of the cells except (A) Muscle cells (B) Renal tubular cells (C) Adipocytes (D) Liver cells

Last Answer : Answer : D

Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Description : Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked ... mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Last Answer : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms

The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response C. They restore responsiveness to other antihypertensives when tolerance has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response

The following is true of pethidine except: A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morphine B. It is less constipating than morphine C. It is a poor antitussive D. In overdose it often produces excitatory effect

Description : The following is true of pethidine except: A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morphine B. It is less constipating than morphine C. It is a poor antitussive D. In overdose it often produces excitatory effect

Last Answer : A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morph

Human insulins are obtained by the following sources/methods except: A. Cadaver pancreas B. Proinsulin recombinant bacterial C. Precursor yeast recombinant D. Enzyme modification of **** insulin

Description : Human insulins are obtained by the following sources/methods except: A. Cadaver pancreas B. Proinsulin recombinant bacterial C. Precursor yeast recombinant D. Enzyme modification of pork insulin

Last Answer : . Cadaver pancreas

Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Description : Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Last Answer : A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action

The following is true of selegiline: A. It does not exert antiparkinsonian action unless combined with levodopa B. It overcomes the ‘on-off ’ effect in levodopa treated advanced parkinsonian patients C. It retards the progression of Parkinson's disease D. At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Description : The following is true of selegiline: A. It does not exert antiparkinsonian action unless combined with levodopa B. It overcomes the on-off ' effect in levodopa treated advanced parkinsonian ... D. At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Last Answer : . At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Poisons like cyanide inhibit Na+ efflux and K+ influx during cellular transport. This inhibitory effect is reversed by an injection of ATP. This demonstrates that (a) ATP is the carrier protein in the transport system (b) energy for Na+-K+ exchange pump comes from ATP (c) ATP is hydrolysed by ATPase to release energy (d) Na+-K+ exchange pump operates in the cell.

Description : Poisons like cyanide inhibit Na+ efflux and K+ influx during cellular transport. This inhibitory effect is reversed by an injection of ATP. This demonstrates that (a) ATP is the carrier protein in the ... is hydrolysed by ATPase to release energy (d) Na+-K+ exchange pump operates in the cell.

Last Answer : (b) energy for Na+-K+ exchange pump comes from ATP

The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect: A. Amlodipine B. Nifedipine C. Diltiazem D. Verapamil

Description : The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect: A. Amlodipine B. Nifedipine C. Diltiazem D. Verapamil

Last Answer : B. Nifedipine

The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularly C. All hypnotics aggravate sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening

Description : The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B ... sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening

Last Answer : B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularl

The following antiepileptic drug is likely to cause hyponatremia as a side effect, especially in elderly patients: A. Primidone B. Carbamazepine C. Phenytoin D. Sodium valproate

Description : The following antiepileptic drug is likely to cause hyponatremia as a side effect, especially in elderly patients: A. Primidone B. Carbamazepine C. Phenytoin D. Sodium valproate

Last Answer : B. Carbamazepine

Actions of oxytocin include the following except: A. Vasoconstriction B. Increased water reabsorption in renal collecting ducts C. Contraction of mammary myoepithelium D. Release of prostaglandins from endometrium

Description : Actions of oxytocin include the following except: A. Vasoconstriction B. Increased water reabsorption in renal collecting ducts C. Contraction of mammary myoepithelium D. Release of prostaglandins from endometrium

Last Answer : A. Vasoconstriction

Of the following classifications of medications, which is known to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis or release? a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs include aspirin and ibuprofen.

Description : Of the following classifications of medications, which is known to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis or release? a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs ... to cause immunosuppression. d) Antineoplastic agents Antineoplastic agents are known to cause immunosuppression.

Last Answer : a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs include aspirin and ibuprofen.

Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose. B. With normal renal function, this patient is likely to be volume overloaded. C. Proper fluid therapy would be unlikely to include potassium administration. D. Insulin administration will increase the potassium content of cells. E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood ... . E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

Last Answer : Answer: D DISCUSSION: Each 100-mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose causes a fall in serum sodium concentration of approximately 2 mEq. per liter. Excess serum glucose ... correction of the patient's associated acidosis produce movement of potassium ions into the intracellular compartment

Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Last Answer : B. Amiodarone

The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Description : The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Last Answer : C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule

Select the action of vasopressin exerted through the V1 subtype receptors: A. Release of coagulation factor VIII and von Willebrands factor from vascular endothelium B. Increased peristalsis of gut C. Dilatation of blood vessels D. Increased water permeability of renal collecting ducts

Description : Select the action of vasopressin exerted through the V1 subtype receptors: A. Release of coagulation factor VIII and von Willebrands factor from vascular endothelium B. Increased peristalsis of gut C. Dilatation of blood vessels D. Increased water permeability of renal collecting ducts

Last Answer : B. Increased peristalsis of gut

Which of the following drugs used for the treatment of angina by inhalation has a very rapid onset and a brief duration of effect ? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine

Description : Which of the following drugs used for the treatment of angina by inhalation has a very rapid onset and a brief duration of effect ? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine

Last Answer : Ans: A