Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of 2 hours C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is
appropriate for the following type of drug:
A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr
B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life
of 2 hours
C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3
hours
D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours
used for relief of casual headache
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3
hours
by

Related questions

Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of 2 hours C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Last Answer : Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features: A. Takes about one week to develop B. Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate C. It is irreversible D. Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings

It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 hr and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be (A) 600 mg (B) 300 mg (C) 30 mg (D) 60 mg

Description : It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 hr and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be (A) 600 mg (B) 300 mg (C) 30 mg (D) 60 mg

Last Answer : (B) 300 mg

What are NDDS? Differentiate between sustained and controlled release dosage forms.

Description : What are NDDS? Differentiate between sustained and controlled release dosage forms.

Last Answer : NDDS:  New drug delivery system delivers or aimed at maximizing the drug effectiveness or minimizing the side effects. Some of the Novel dosage forms are: 1) Implants 2) Controlled drug delivery system 3) ... drug. 6 e.g. sustain release tables. e.g. Transdermal patches. 

Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of: A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate

Description : Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of: A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate

Last Answer : B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

The plasma half life of aspirin (along with salicylic acid released from it): A. Remains constant irrespective of dose B. Is longer for antiinflammatory doses compared to that for analgesic dose C. Is shorter for antiinflammatory doses compared to that for analgesic dose D. Can be shortened by acidifying urine

Description : The plasma half life of aspirin (along with salicylic acid released from it): A. Remains constant irrespective of dose B. Is longer for antiinflammatory doses compared to that for analgesic ... for antiinflammatory doses compared to that for analgesic dose D. Can be shortened by acidifying urine

Last Answer : B. Is longer for antiinflammatory doses compared to that for analgesic dose

The following antihypertensive drug tends to lower plasma renin activity: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Nifedipine D. Captopril

Description : The following antihypertensive drug tends to lower plasma renin activity: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Nifedipine D. Captopril

Last Answer : A. Clonidine

The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide

Description : The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : A. Prazosin

Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Description : Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Last Answer : C. Lithium carbonate

A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril

Description : A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril

Last Answer : B. Methyldopa

Which analgesic-antiinflammatory drug is more appropriate in musculo-skeletal disorder where pain is more prominent than inflammation: A. Ibuprofen B. Piroxicam C. Indomethacin D. Nimesulide

Description : Which analgesic-antiinflammatory drug is more appropriate in musculo-skeletal disorder where pain is more prominent than inflammation: A. Ibuprofen B. Piroxicam C. Indomethacin D. Nimesulide

Last Answer : A. Ibuprofen

n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause postural hypotension C. Used alone, they have high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Description : n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause ... high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Last Answer : B. They do not cause postural hypotension

An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily. Even after a month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was added. After 2 hours of taking the other drug his BP fell precipitously. The most likely other drug given to him is: A. Atenolol B. Captopril C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine

Description : An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily. Even after a month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was added. After 2 hours of taking the ... likely other drug given to him is: A. Atenolol B. Captopril C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine

Last Answer : B. Captopril

What is TRUE about Benzodiazepine and diazepam in 5-10mg oral dose used for oral sedation in dentistry: A. Good analgesic effect if given 1 hour prior to dental sessions B. Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a Benzodiazepam C. Post operative headache D. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects

Description : What is TRUE about Benzodiazepine and diazepam in 5-10mg oral dose used for oral sedation in dentistry: A. Good analgesic effect if given 1 hour prior to dental sessions B. Would be reversed ... Benzodiazepam C. Post operative headache D. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects

Last Answer : B. Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a Benzodiazepam

Among all cardiac glycosides, digoxin is the most commonly used, because: A. It is the most potent and fastest acting glycoside B. It has the highest and most consistent oral bioavailability C. It is the longest acting and the safest glycoside D. It has intermediate plasma half life so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

Description : Among all cardiac glycosides, digoxin is the most commonly used, because: A. It is the most potent and fastest acting glycoside B. It has the highest and most consistent oral ... so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

Last Answer : D. It has intermediate plasma half life so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularly C. All hypnotics aggravate sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening

Description : The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B ... sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening

Last Answer : B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularl

Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action

Description : Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action

Last Answer : B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use

Which of the following statements is not true of zopiclone: A. It is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic with efficacy and safety similar to benzodiazepines B. It does not produce rebound sleep disturbances on discontinuation C. It does not act by potentiating GABA D. It is used to wean off insomniacs from regular benzodiazepine use

Description : Which of the following statements is not true of zopiclone: A. It is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic with efficacy and safety similar to benzodiazepines B. It does not produce rebound sleep disturbances ... act by potentiating GABA D. It is used to wean off insomniacs from regular benzodiazepine use

Last Answer : C. It does not act by potentiating GABA

Hypnotic benzodiazepines increase the period of time spent in the following stage of sleep: A. Stage II B. Stage III C. Stage IV D. REM stage

Description : Hypnotic benzodiazepines increase the period of time spent in the following stage of sleep: A. Stage II B. Stage III C. Stage IV D. REM stage

Last Answer : A. Stage II

Effect of alcohol on sleep has the following feature: A. It is a dependable hypnotic but is not prescribed because of abuse potential B. It consistently improves the quality of sleep C. It can disorganise sleep architecture D. It suppresses sleep apnoea

Description : Effect of alcohol on sleep has the following feature: A. It is a dependable hypnotic but is not prescribed because of abuse potential B. It consistently improves the quality of sleep C. It can disorganise sleep architecture D. It suppresses sleep apnoea

Last Answer : C. It can disorganise sleep architecture

Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin

Description : Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin

Last Answer : B. Zolpidem

The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log every injection of Demerol B. Make fraction dosage like 0.5 ml as 1 ml C. Demerol inventory must be checked every endorsement by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Description : The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log ... by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Last Answer : D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive

Description : Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive

Last Answer : . Chloramphenicol

If a drug is excreted in urine at the rate of 10 mg/hr at a steady-state plasma concentration of 5 mg/L, then its renal clearance is: A. 0.5 L/hr B. 2.0 L/hr C. 5.0 L/hr D. 20 L/hr

Description : The plasma half life of penicillin-G is longer in the new born because their: A. Plasma protein level is low B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature C. Glomerular filtration rate is low D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Last Answer : B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature

Pentazocine differs from morphine in that: A. It is inactive by the oral route B. It does not produce physical dependence C. It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effect D. Its action is not blocked by naloxone

Description : Pentazocine differs from morphine in that: A. It is inactive by the oral route B. It does not produce physical dependence C. It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effect D. Its action is not blocked by naloxone

Last Answer : C. It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effec

Choose the correct statement about codeine: A. It has a lower oral: parenteral activity ratio than morphine B. It is devoid of abuse liability C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine D. It is a more potent antitussive than morphine

Description : Choose the correct statement about codeine: A. It has a lower oral: parenteral activity ratio than morphine B. It is devoid of abuse liability C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine D. It is a more potent antitussive than morphine

Last Answer : C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine

The following is not true of morphine: A. Its 2-glucuronide metabolite is an active analgesic B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine C. Its oral: parenteral activity ratio is 1:4 D. It undergoes enterohepatic cycling

Description : The following is not true of morphine: A. Its 2-glucuronide metabolite is an active analgesic B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine C. Its oral: parenteral activity ratio is 1:4 D. It undergoes enterohepatic cycling

Last Answer : B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine

Menadione (vitamin K3) can produce kernicterus in neonates by: A. Inducing haemolysis B. Inhibiting glucuronidation of bilirubin C. Displacing plasma protein bound bilirubin D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Menadione (vitamin K3) can produce kernicterus in neonates by: A. Inducing haemolysis B. Inhibiting glucuronidation of bilirubin C. Displacing plasma protein bound bilirubin D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Description : The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Last Answer : C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule

Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Description : Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation ... release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Last Answer : C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks

16.17 Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Description : 16.17 Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial ... release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Last Answer : C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks

Select the most appropriate drug for regular prophylactic therapy in a 10 year old child who suffers from exercise induced asthma: A. Oral salbutamol B. Oral theophylline C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate D. Inhaled salmeterol

Description : Select the most appropriate drug for regular prophylactic therapy in a 10 year old child who suffers from exercise induced asthma: A. Oral salbutamol B. Oral theophylline C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate D. Inhaled salmeterol

Last Answer : C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect

Description : Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect

Last Answer : A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Description : Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Last Answer : C. Antitubercular drugs

Which side effect of the oral contraceptive subsides after 3–4 cycles of continued use: A. Glucose intolerance B. Rise in blood pressure C. Headache D. Fluid retention

Description : Which side effect of the oral contraceptive subsides after 3–4 cycles of continued use: A. Glucose intolerance B. Rise in blood pressure C. Headache D. Fluid retention

Last Answer : C. Headache

A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no other drug before or after B. Propranolol for 1 week followed by 131I C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 months D. Propranolol + Lugol’s iodine for 2 weeks— 131I—continue Lugol’s iodine for 2-3 months

Description : A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no ... . Propranolol + Lugol's iodine for 2 weeks- 131I-continue Lugol's iodine for 2-3 months

Last Answer : C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 month

The plasma half life of penicillin-G is longer in the new born because their: A. Plasma protein level is low B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature C. Glomerular filtration rate is low D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Description : The plasma half life of penicillin-G is longer in the new born because their: A. Plasma protein level is low B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature C. Glomerular filtration rate is low D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Last Answer : D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Ceftriaxone has all the following attributes except: A. It has a long plasma half life of 8 hours B. It can cause bleeding by prolonging prothrombin time C. It has attained high cure rates in multiresistant typhoid infection D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

Description : Ceftriaxone has all the following attributes except: A. It has a long plasma half life of 8 hours B. It can cause bleeding by prolonging prothrombin time C. It has attained high cure rates in multiresistant typhoid infection D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

Last Answer : D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can precipitate angina: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Captopril D. Prazosin

Description : Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can precipitate angina: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Captopril D. Prazosin

Last Answer : B. Hydralazine

The following antihypertensive drug has been found to suppress certain manifestations of morphine withdrawal syndrome and to block postoperative pain when injected intrathecally: A. Prazosin B. Clonidine C. Reserpine D. Ketanserin

Description : The following antihypertensive drug has been found to suppress certain manifestations of morphine withdrawal syndrome and to block postoperative pain when injected intrathecally: A. Prazosin B. Clonidine C. Reserpine D. Ketanserin

Last Answer : B. Clonidine

Which of the following feature(s) limit(s) the use of prazosin as a first line antihypertensive drug: A. Higher incidence of disturbing side effects B. Unfavourable metabolic effects C. Development of tolerance when used alone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Which of the following feature(s) limit(s) the use of prazosin as a first line antihypertensive drug: A. Higher incidence of disturbing side effects B. Unfavourable metabolic effects C. Development of tolerance when used alone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Loss of taste sensation can be a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Clonidine B. Captopril C. Verapamil D. Prazosin

Description : Loss of taste sensation can be a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Clonidine B. Captopril C. Verapamil D. Prazosin

Last Answer : B. Captopril

Persistent dry cough may occur as a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Enalapril B. Atenolol C. Diltiazem D. Methyldopa

Description : Persistent dry cough may occur as a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Enalapril B. Atenolol C. Diltiazem D. Methyldopa

Last Answer : A. Enalapril