The most common and important undesirable effect of injectable contraceptive depot medroxyprogesterone acetate is: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding C. Venous thrombosis D. Hypertension

The most common and important undesirable effect
of injectable contraceptive depot medroxyprogesterone acetate is:
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding
C. Venous thrombosis
D. Hypertension
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding
by

Related questions

Oral contraceptive use increases the risk of occurrence of the following diseases except: A. Hypertension B. Leg vein thrombosis C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Gall stones

Description : Oral contraceptive use increases the risk of occurrence of the following diseases except: A. Hypertension B. Leg vein thrombosis C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Gall stones

Last Answer : C. Endometrial carcinoma

The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Loose motions C. Constipation D. Urticaria

Description : The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Loose motions C. Constipation D. Urticaria

Last Answer : B. Loose motions

The following adverse effect of levodopa is not minimised by combining it with carbidopa: A. Involuntary movements B. Nausea and vomiting C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. ‘On-off ’ effect

Description : The following adverse effect of levodopa is not minimised by combining it with carbidopa: A. Involuntary movements B. Nausea and vomiting C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. ‘On-off ’ effect

Last Answer : A. Involuntary movements

Use of carbidopa along with levodopa in the treatment of parkinsonism: A. Inhibits development of involuntary movements B. Minimises ‘on-off ’ effect’ C. Inhibits occurrence of behavioral abnormalities D. Accentuates nausea and vomiting

Description : Use of carbidopa along with levodopa in the treatment of parkinsonism: A. Inhibits development of involuntary movements B. Minimises ‘on-off ’ effect’ C. Inhibits occurrence of behavioral abnormalities D. Accentuates nausea and vomiting

Last Answer : B. Minimises ‘on-off ’ effect

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of developing deep venous thrombosis with low-dose heparin prophylaxis decreases by 67% b. The risk of pulmonary embolism is decreased by almost 50% c. There is no increase in mortality from other causes found in patients treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of ... treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c In a metaanalysis of 70 randomized trials in 16,000 patients comparing low-dose heparin prophylaxis with standard therapy, the odds of developing deep venous thrombosis ... Similarly, the effectiveness of prophylaxis was not influenced by either two or three times daily dosage

The most clear cut beneficial results are obtained in the use of anticoagulants for the following purpose: A. Prevention of recurrences of myocardial infarction B. Prevention of venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism C. Cerebrovascular accident D. Retinal artery thrombosis

Description : The most clear cut beneficial results are obtained in the use of anticoagulants for the following purpose: A. Prevention of recurrences of myocardial infarction B. Prevention of venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism C. Cerebrovascular accident D. Retinal artery thrombosis

Last Answer : A. Prevention of recurrences of myocardial infarction

Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Description : Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Last Answer : B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomitin

Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements

Description : Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements

Last Answer : D. Abnormal movements

Health benefits afforded by the combined estrogenprogestin oral contraceptive pill include the following except: A. Reduced menstrual blood loss B. Lower risk of fibrocystic breast disease C. Lower risk of myocardial infarction D. Lower risk of endometrial carcinoma

Description : Health benefits afforded by the combined estrogenprogestin oral contraceptive pill include the following except: A. Reduced menstrual blood loss B. Lower risk of fibrocystic breast disease C. Lower risk of myocardial infarction D. Lower risk of endometrial carcinoma

Last Answer : . Lower risk of myocardial infarction

The following has been found to act as a male contraceptive without affecting libido or potency: A. Cyproterone acetate B. Goserelin C. Centchroman D. Gossypol

Description : The following has been found to act as a male contraceptive without affecting libido or potency: A. Cyproterone acetate B. Goserelin C. Centchroman D. Gossypol

Last Answer : D. Gossypol

Which of the following can act as a single dose postcoital contraceptive: A. Clomiphene citrate B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate

Description : Which of the following can act as a single dose postcoital contraceptive: A. Clomiphene citrate B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate

Last Answer : B. Mifepristone

Digitalis is most suitable for treatment of CHF when it is due to: A. Cor pulmonale B. Arterio-venous shunt C. Thiamine deficiency D. Long-standing uncontrolled hypertension

Description : Digitalis is most suitable for treatment of CHF when it is due to: A. Cor pulmonale B. Arterio-venous shunt C. Thiamine deficiency D. Long-standing uncontrolled hypertension

Last Answer : D. Long-standing uncontrolled hypertensio

A patient has an episode of hematemesis following streptokinase infused for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following drugs would be most effective in controlling the bleeding episode: A. Vitamin K B. Noradrenaline C. Epsilon aminocaproic acid D. Rutin

Description : A patient has an episode of hematemesis following streptokinase infused for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following drugs would be most effective in controlling the bleeding episode: A. Vitamin K B. Noradrenaline C. Epsilon aminocaproic acid D. Rutin

Last Answer : C. Epsilon aminocaproic acid

Estrogen replacement therapy for postmenopausal women is contraindicated in subjects with: A. Leg vein thrombosis B. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding C. Migraine D. All of the above

Description : Estrogen replacement therapy for postmenopausal women is contraindicated in subjects with: A. Leg vein thrombosis B. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding C. Migraine D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

A 43 year old, lecturer has come to you with complaints of heavy but regular menstrual bleeding with flooding and clots. There is no anatomical reason for heavy flow. The most effective remedy for reducing her menstrual flow is: a) Tranexemic acid. b) Dilatation and Curettage. c) Depomedroxy progesterone acetate. d) Misoprostol. e) Ergometrine maleate.

Description : A 43 year old, lecturer has come to you with complaints of heavy but regular menstrual bleeding with flooding and clots. There is no anatomical reason for heavy flow. The most effective ... ) Dilatation and Curettage. c) Depomedroxy progesterone acetate. d) Misoprostol. e) Ergometrine maleate.

Last Answer : a) Tranexemic acid.

The purpose/purposes served by the progestin component of the combined estrogen + progestin contraceptive pill is/are: A. Suppression of ovulation B. Prompt bleeding at the end of the course C. Blockade of increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. All of the above

Description : The purpose/purposes served by the progestin component of the combined estrogen + progestin contraceptive pill is/are: A. Suppression of ovulation B. Prompt bleeding at the end of the course C. Blockade of increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The currently used injectable hormonal contraceptive contains: A. Long acting progestin B. Long acting estrogen C. Both long acting estrogen and progestin D. Chorionic gonadotropin

Description : The currently used injectable hormonal contraceptive contains: A. Long acting progestin B. Long acting estrogen C. Both long acting estrogen and progestin D. Chorionic gonadotropin

Last Answer : A. Long acting progestin

External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic compression devices is/are true? a. Intermittent pneumatic compression is as effective as low-dose heparin in prevention of venous thrombosis b. These devices function by compressing the lower extremities therefore augmenting venous return c. Pneumatic compression devices may also exhibit their antithrombotic effect through stimulating local and systemic fibrinolysis d. The length of time that intermittent pneumatic compression should be used includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Description : External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic ... includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d In many well-controlled studies of venous prophylaxis, intermittent pneumatic compression has been found to be as effective as low-dose heparin therapy. In addition to augmentation ... be used through the operation and for at least five days in the face or prolonged immobilization

The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration of warfarin? a. An important complication of warfarin therapy is skin necrosis in patients with protein C deficiency b. Warfarin interferes with vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X c. For effective anticoagulation the prothrombin time (PT) should be kept at 2 control d. It is recommended that warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Description : The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration ... warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time

Aspirin prolongs bleeding time by inhibiting the synthesis of: A. Clotting factors in liver B. Prostacyclin in vascular endothelium C. Cyclic AMP in platelets D. Thromboxane A2 in platelets

Description : Aspirin prolongs bleeding time by inhibiting the synthesis of: A. Clotting factors in liver B. Prostacyclin in vascular endothelium C. Cyclic AMP in platelets D. Thromboxane A2 in platelets

Last Answer : D. Thromboxane A2 in platelets

Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause is recommended because the progestin: A. Prevents osteoporosis B. Prevents irregular bleeding C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause is recommended because the progestin: A. Prevents osteoporosis B. Prevents irregular bleeding C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Side effects of cyclic progestin therapy include the following except: A. Headache B. Gastroesophageal reflux C. Breast dyscomfort D. Irregular bleeding

Description : Side effects of cyclic progestin therapy include the following except: A. Headache B. Gastroesophageal reflux C. Breast dyscomfort D. Irregular bleeding

Last Answer : D. Irregular bleeding

The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is (a) Nausea and vomiting (b) Loose motions (c) Constipation (d) Urticaria

Description : The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is (a) Nausea and vomiting (b) Loose motions (c) Constipation (d) Urticaria

Last Answer : Ans: B

Regarding morphine, all are true Except A. Respiratory depression ... effect B. Can be IV subcutaneously, rectally and epidurally C. Can cause nausea and vomiting D. Less effective against pain of myocardial ischemia

Description : Regarding morphine, all are true Except A. Respiratory depression ... effect B. Can be IV subcutaneously, rectally and epidurally C. Can cause nausea and vomiting D. Less effective against pain of myocardial ischemia

Last Answer : Ans: D

The most common symptom of esophageal disease is a) dysphagia. This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain on swallowing. b) nausea. Nausea is the most common symptom of gastrointestinal problems in general. c) vomiting. Vomiting is a nonspecific symptom that may have a variety of causes. d) odynophagia. Odynophagia refers specifically to acute pain on swallowing.

Description : The most common symptom of esophageal disease is a) dysphagia. This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain on ... have a variety of causes. d) odynophagia. Odynophagia refers specifically to acute pain on swallowing.

Last Answer : a) dysphagia. This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain on swallowing.

You are treating a patient of deep vein thrombosis with warfarin. What value of International normalized ratio (INR) will you attempt by adjusting dose of the anticoagulant for an adequate therapeutic effect: A. 1.2 – 1.5 B. 1.3 – 1.7 C. 1.5 – 2.0 D. 2.0 – 3.0

Description : You are treating a patient of deep vein thrombosis with warfarin. What value of International normalized ratio (INR) will you attempt by adjusting dose of the anticoagulant for an adequate therapeutic effect: A. 1.2 – 1.5 B. 1.3 – 1.7 C. 1.5 – 2.0 D. 2.0 – 3.0

Last Answer : D. 2.0 – 3.0

Mesenteric venous thrombosis?

Description : Mesenteric venous thrombosis?

Last Answer : DefinitionMesenteric venous thrombosis is a blood clot in the major veins that drain blood from the intestine.Causes, incidence, and risk factorsMesenteric venous thrombosis is a clot that blocks blood ... more likely to stick together (clot) have a higher risk for mesenteric venous thrombosis.Sy

Deep venous thrombosis?

Description : Deep venous thrombosis?

Last Answer : DefinitionDeep venous thrombosis is a condition in which a blood clot forms in a vein that is deep inside the body.Alternative NamesDVT; Blood clot in the legs; Thromboembolism; ... include:After a pacemaker catheter has been passed through the vein in the groinBedrestCigarette smokingFractures

There are a number of hypercoaguable states which can be associated with arterial or venous thrombosis and embolic phenomenon. These include: a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. Antithrombin III deficiency c. Von Willebrand disease d. Vitamin C deficiency

Description : There are a number of hypercoaguable states which can be associated with arterial or venous thrombosis and embolic phenomenon. These include: a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. Antithrombin III deficiency c. Von Willebrand disease d. Vitamin C deficiency

Last Answer : Answer: a, b A number of hypercoaguable states are present. These include heparin-associated thrombocytopenia in which a heparin-dependent platelet antibody causes aggregation of ... soft tissue increasing vascular permeability and fragility resulting in the potential for bleeding disorders

Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous thrombosis include: a. Enhancement of antithrombin III activity b. A decrease in thrombin availability c. Inhibition of platelet aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Description : Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous ... aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Low-dose heparin is thought to protect against venous thrombosis through three different mechanisms. First, antithrombin III activity with its inhibition of activated Factor X is ... release reaction. The standard doses of heparin administered (5000 units bid) does not affect aPTT

Which of the following statement(s) concerning intravenous nutritional support is/are true? a. Concentrations of glucose no higher than 5% should be used to avoid peripheral vein sclerosis b. A major disadvantage of the peripheral technique is limited caloric delivery c. If total parenteral nutrition is required, access to the superior vena cava via the external jugular vein is the most suitable site d. Venous thrombosis is an uncommon complication for long-term central vein catheterization

Description : Which of the following statement(s) concerning intravenous nutritional support is/are true? a. Concentrations of glucose no higher than 5% should be used to avoid peripheral vein sclerosis ... suitable site d. Venous thrombosis is an uncommon complication for long-term central vein catheterization

Last Answer : Answer: b Although peripheral access can be used for intravenous nutrition, the major disadvantage of this technique is limited caloric delivery to meet catabolic demands within tolerated fluid ... studies that use phlebography or radionucleotide venography indicate the incidence is as high as 35%

The following drug reduces the effect of oral anticoagulants: A. Broad spectrum antibiotic B. Cimetidine C. Aspirin D. Oral contraceptive

Description : The following drug reduces the effect of oral anticoagulants: A. Broad spectrum antibiotic B. Cimetidine C. Aspirin D. Oral contraceptive

Last Answer : D. Oral contraceptive

Which side effect of the oral contraceptive subsides after 3–4 cycles of continued use: A. Glucose intolerance B. Rise in blood pressure C. Headache D. Fluid retention

Description : Which side effect of the oral contraceptive subsides after 3–4 cycles of continued use: A. Glucose intolerance B. Rise in blood pressure C. Headache D. Fluid retention

Last Answer : C. Headache

Neovascular glaucoma follows: a. Thrombosis of central retinal vein b. Acute congestive glaucoma c. Staphylococcal infection d. Hypertension

Description : Neovascular glaucoma follows: a. Thrombosis of central retinal vein b. Acute congestive glaucoma c. Staphylococcal infection d. Hypertension

Last Answer : ANSWER: A 

Select the diuretic that can cause gynaecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbance as a side effect on long-term use: A. Amiloride B. Spironolactone C. Metolazone D. Acetazolamide

Description : Select the diuretic that can cause gynaecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbance as a side effect on long-term use: A. Amiloride B. Spironolactone C. Metolazone D. Acetazolamide

Last Answer : B. Spironolactone

Life threatening risks of anesthesia include all except A. Hypoxic brain injury B. Myocardial infarction C. Postoperative nausea and vomiting D. Cerebrovascular accident

Description : Life threatening risks of anesthesia include all except A. Hypoxic brain injury B. Myocardial infarction C. Postoperative nausea and vomiting D. Cerebrovascular accident

Last Answer : Ans: C

If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the position of the patient’s head is changed with respect to gravity. The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.

Description : Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. ... as acetaminophen. BPPV is frequently stimulated by head trauma, infection, or other events.

Last Answer : a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the ... vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.

Typical signs and symptoms of appendicitis include: a) Nausea Nausea is typically associated with appendicitis with or without vomiting.

Description : Typical signs and symptoms of appendicitis include: a) Nausea Nausea is typically associated with appendicitis with or without vomiting. b) Left lower quadrant pain Pain is generally felt in the ... may be present with appendicitis. d) High fever Low-grade fever is associated with appendicitis.

Last Answer : a) Nausea Nausea is typically associated with appendicitis with or without vomiting.

The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion

Description : The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion

Last Answer : A. Gastric decompression

Nausea Vomiting

Description : Nausea Vomiting

Last Answer : Nausea is not a disease. Neither is vomiting. Both are symptoms that can be caused by many medical conditions such as motion sickness, migraine, food poisoning, pregnancy, infection and overeating among others ... and it can be really dangerous. That's why it is important to replace the lost fluids.

Out of the following, which is the most ideal time for insertion of an intra uterine contraceptive device? Options: 1) Immediate post-partum i.e. within first week of delivery 2) Post-puerperal i.e. 6-8 weeks after delivery 3) Immediately after second trimester legal abortion 4) During last week of menstrual cycle

Description : Out of the following, which is the most ideal time for insertion of an intra uterine contraceptive device? Options: 1) Immediate post-partum i.e. within first week of delivery2) Post- ... after delivery 3) Immediately after second trimester legal abortion 4) During last week of menstrual cycle

Last Answer : Correct Answer: 2) Post-puerperal i.e. 6-8 weeks after delivery

Select the progestin preparation for coadministration with estrogen for hormone replacement therapy that does not counteract the beneficial effect of the latter on lipid profile due to lack of androgenic activity: A. Micronized oral progesterone B. Norethindrone C. Lynestrenol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (p. 281-282)

Description : Select the progestin preparation for coadministration with estrogen for hormone replacement therapy that does not counteract the beneficial effect of the latter on lipid profile due to lack of ... oral progesterone B. Norethindrone C. Lynestrenol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (p. 281-282)

Last Answer : Select the indication for which a progestin is used alone without combining with an estrogen: A. Threatened abortion B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding C. Hormone replacement therapy D. Premenstrual tension

Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect

Description : Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect

Last Answer : A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation

n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause postural hypotension C. Used alone, they have high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Description : n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause ... high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Last Answer : B. They do not cause postural hypotension

Which of the following complications of TPN are appropriately managed with the listed treatment? a. Air embolism—place patient in reverse Trendelenburg and the left lateral decubitus position and aspirate venous air b. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis—give sodium and potassium as acetate salts c. Carbon dioxide retention—decrease glucose calories and replace with fat d. Line sepsis—intravenous antibiotics

Description : Which of the following complications of TPN are appropriately managed with the listed treatment? a. Air embolism-place patient in reverse Trendelenburg and the left lateral decubitus position ... dioxide retention-decrease glucose calories and replace with fat d. Line sepsis-intravenous antibiotics

Last Answer : Answer: b, c A number of complications of TPN can occur which can be divided into three types: mechanical, metabolic, and infectious

The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor C. Dopamine D2 receptor D. Opioid μ receptor

Description : The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor C. Dopamine D2 receptor D. Opioid μ receptor

Last Answer : B. Serotonin

The most important risk in the use of sumatriptan for treatment of migraine is: A. Precipitation of seizures B. Precipitation of psychosis C. Development of hypertension D. Coronary vasospasm

Description : The most important risk in the use of sumatriptan for treatment of migraine is: A. Precipitation of seizures B. Precipitation of psychosis C. Development of hypertension D. Coronary vasospasm

Last Answer : D. Coronary vasospasm

Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Description : Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Last Answer : B. Prosthetic heart valves

Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Description : Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Last Answer : B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis