Description : In the construction of partial dentures the surveyor is not used to, A. Contour the wax as part of the fabrication of the working cast B. Locate the guide planes C. Determine the location of indirect retainers D. Identify any undesirable undercuts
Last Answer : A. Contour the wax as part of the fabrication of the working cast
Description : A partial denture that seats on the master cast but fails to seat correctly in the mouth is a result of, A. Contraction of the metal framework during casting B. Insufficient expansion of the investment material C. Distortion of impression D. Failure to block out unwanted undercuts
Last Answer : C. Distortion of impression
Description : In removable partial denture, the principle of an indirect retainer is to: A. Stabilise against lateral movement B. Prevent settling of major connectors C. Restrict tissue movement at the distal ... base of the partial denture D. Minimise movement of the base away from the supporting tissue
Last Answer : D. Minimise movement of the base away from the supporting tissue
Description : Wax patterns ARE NOT to be left on the bench for long time because of, A. Distortion B. Lost of elasticity
Last Answer : A. Distortion
Description : When preparing a class III cavity for composite restoration; in which situation should acid itching be used: A. Always should be performed to minimise marginal leakage B. Should not be ... extra retention is required D. Only in situations where cavity is shallow to avoid pulp irritation
Last Answer : A. Always should be performed to minimise marginal leakage
Description : Pin Restoration with which material has the best retention: A. Amalgam B. Gold inlay C. Composite D. Glass Ionomer
Last Answer : C. Composite
Description : A cusp fracture immediate to Class II inlay can be BEST detected by, A. History B. Visually C. Radiograph D. Percussion E. Touching the tip of the cusp / Pressure on the cusp/
Last Answer : E. Touching the tip of the cusp / Pressure on the cusp/
Description : Which is the more retentive form for an anterior bridge A. ¾ partial veneer crown B. Class V inlay C. Pinlay Veneer D. Class III inlay with pins
Last Answer : A. ¾ partial veneer crown
Description : In regard to indirect compared to direct wax technique, what characteristics must the wax have:** A. Low temperature solidifying point B. Hard in room temperature C. Higher flow in room temperature
Last Answer : B. Hard in room temperature
Description : You can increase the retention of a Maryland bridge by: A. Incorporating mesh work in wax pattern B. Perforation techniques in the metal cast
Last Answer : A. Incorporating mesh work in wax pattern
Description : When dry cast is immersed in water saturated with calcium sulphate:** A. There is contraction B. There is negligible expansion C. There is definite expansion D. There is no change E. None of the above
Last Answer : B. There is negligible expansion
Description : After making an impression to reline an RPD the dentist notes that the indirect retainers are not resting on the tooth. To avoid this, what process should have undertaken initially: A. Ask ... abutment tooth while setting C. Fabricate new denture D. Add impression material and close the gap
Last Answer : B. Hold the metal base frame against the abutment tooth while setting
Description : The ideal length of core in the fabrication of crown and core of endodontically treated tooth is, A. 1.5 of crown length B. The length of the crown C. 2/3 tooth/root length D. ½ root length
Last Answer : C. 2/3 tooth/root length
Description : When should metallic framework not be contaminated during the fabrication of a porcelain fused to metal crown: A. Between bisque stage and glazing stage B. Between preheat and opaque stages C. Between opaque and bisque stages D. Between one opaque and two opaque stages
Last Answer : B. Between preheat and opaque stages
Description : During mouth preparation for RPD on tooth adjacent to edentulous area. There is dentine exposure: A. Restoration is required B. Proceed with rest seat preparation and fabrication if involved area is not more than 2mm
Last Answer : A. Restoration is required
Description : Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of stone dies used for crown fabrication, A. They lack accurate reproduction of surface details B. Their overall dimensions are slightly smaller than ... of the stone D. The hazard of aspiration of toxic materials during trimming of the dies.
Last Answer : A. They lack accurate reproduction of surface details
Description : Etching techniques are used always to: A. minimise the leakage of restorations B. for aesthetic considerations
Last Answer : A. minimise the leakage of restorations
Description : Why do you polish the teeth before seating of a partial denture: A. To smooth the rough surface B. To minimise the retention of plaque C. To increase the adoptability of occlusal rests
Last Answer : B. To minimise the retention of plaque
Description : Tissue conditioning materials: (Silicon lining materials) A. are more resilient than plastic acrylic B. can minimise any bacterial colonies
Last Answer : A. are more resilient than plastic acrylic
Description : Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp capping?*** A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure. B. Removal of caries has exposed the pulp C. When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ
Last Answer : A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure.
Description : Distortion or change in shape of a cast partial denture clasp during its clinical use probably indicates that the: A. Ductility was too low B. Hardness was too great C. Ultimate tensile strength was too low D. Tension temperature was too high E. Elastic limit was exceeded
Last Answer : E. Elastic limit was exceeded
Description : .For an onlay preparation, which of the following is the MOST EFFECTIVE means for verifying adequate occlusal clearance A. Wax bite chew in B. Proper depth cuts C. Visual inspection D. Articulating paper
Last Answer : A. Wax bite chew in
Description : In removable partial dentures, the principle of an indirect retainer is that it: a. Stabilises against lateral movement b. Prevents settling of major connectors c. Restricts tissue movement at ... base of the partial denture. d. Minimises movement of the base away from the supporting tissue
Last Answer : d. Minimises movement of the base away from the supporting tissue
Description : Child comes to your clinic with a fractured incisor 3 mm supra-gingival, how would you treat the case, A. Formocretasol pulpotomy B. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy C. Pulpectomy D. Direct capping E. Indirect capping
Last Answer : B. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
Description : The means by which one part of a partial denture framework opposes the action of the retainer in faction is:** A. Tripoding B. Reciprocation C. Stress breaking D. Indirect retention
Last Answer : B. Reciprocation
Description : A healthy 6 years-old child presents with carious maxillary second primary molar with a necrotic pulp. Which treatment would be preferred? A. Extraction B. Indirect pulp treatment C. ... normal exfoliation) D. Pulpectomy to preserve the tooth as a space manteiner. E. Antibiotic coverage
Last Answer : D. Pulpectomy to preserve the tooth as a space manteiner.
Description : The main reason for dividing a tall packed tower into series of small towers is to (A) Minimise the overall pressure drop (B) Avoid flooding (C) Reduce liquid hold up (D) Avoid channelling
Last Answer : (D) Avoid channelling
Description : The main reason for making the copper calorimeter (used in bomb calorimeter) silvery white and shining/polished is to (A) Minimise its corrosion (B) Avoid radiation heat loss (C) Make it look attractive (D) None of these
Last Answer : (B) Avoid radiation heat loss
Description : Foot valves are provided in the suction line of a centrifugal pump to (A) Avoid priming, every time we start the pump (B) Remove the contaminant present in the liquid (C) Minimise the fluctuation in discharge (D) Control the liquid discharge
Last Answer : (A) Avoid priming, every time we start the pump
Description : The divergent portion of a Venturimeter is made longer than convergent portion in order to (A) Avoid the tendency of breaking away the stream of liquid (B) To minimise frictional losses (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
Last Answer : Answer: Option C
Description : Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth (a) to minimise temperature stresses (b) to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil (c) to minimise the effect of shocks and vibrations due to gassing vehicles, etc. (d) for all of the above reasons
Last Answer : (c) to minimise the effect of shocks and vibrations due to gassing vehicles, etc.
Description : A business that adopts the proactive strategy to social responsibility: A)assumes responsibility for its actions and responds to accusations without outside pressure B)tries to minimise or avoid additional ... )allows a condition or potential problem to go unresolved until the public learns about it
Last Answer : A)assumes responsibility for its actions and responds to accusations without outside pressure
Description : A business adopting the defence strategy approach to social responsibility: A)assumes responsibility for its actions B)tries to minimise or avoid additional obligations linked to the problem C) ... the public learns about it D)complains that current government regulations are unfair and unfavourable
Last Answer : B)tries to minimise or avoid additional obligations linked to the problem
Description : Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the ... the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug
Last Answer : A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug
Last Answer : A
Description : Vehicle tyres are inflated properly (1) to ensure smooth running. (2) to allow the vehicle to take more load. (3) to avoid skidding and to minimise friction (4) to go fast and save fuel.
Last Answer : to avoid skidding and to minimise friction
Description : Which of the following DOES NOT cause depression of the mandible: A. Contraction of lateral pterygoid B. Contraction of temporalis C. Contraction of the suprahyoid muscles D. Contraction of the ... E. Relaxation of all muscles so that the only forces on the mandible are the forces of
Last Answer : B. Contraction of temporalis
Description : The contraction (Gaseous) porosity in inlays is related to:** A. Overheating of the alloy B. Molten gases C. Diameter of the sprue D. Overheating of investment
Last Answer : B. Molten gases
Description : Porosity in acrylic dentures is caused by, A. Contraction porosity in thickest point of the denture B. Insufficient pressure during flasking
Last Answer : A. Contraction porosity in thickest point of the denture B. Insufficient pressure during flasking
Description : The contraction of gold alloys on solidifying is approximately: A. 0.5% B. 2.5% C. 1.40% D. 3%
Last Answer : C. 1.40%
Description : Sensitivity to hot and cold foods soon after cavity preparation and placement of GIC and composite resin in an upper incisor tooth is due to: A. Mechanical trauma due to cavity preparation B. Chemical C. Heat from GIC settings
Last Answer : A. Mechanical trauma due to cavity preparation
Description : Which of the following is an expansile lesion of the oral mucosa, A. Keratocyte more expansion B. Radicular cyst C. Cementoma
Last Answer : B. Radicular cyst
Description : What is your management of a single retroclined upper incisor in a 9 years-old child with sufficient space: A. Anterior inclined plane on mandibular teeth B. Biteplane and protrusion screw C. Expansion screw D. Hawley appliance
Last Answer : A. Anterior inclined plane on mandibular teeth
Description : A 7 years-old child has class I malocclusion, slight version of maxillary class III, adequate arch length. What is your management: A. Oral screen B. Head cap therapy C. Inclined plane on mandibular anterior teeth D. Hawley plate E. Expansion screw plate
Last Answer : C. Inclined plane on mandibular anterior teeth
Description : The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of class II dental amalgam restoration is: A. Delayed expansion B. Inadequate depth at the isthmus area C. Inadequate width at the isthmus area
Last Answer : B. Inadequate depth at the isthmus area
Description : A female patient is diagnosed with Addison’s disease. Which of the following does not confirm this: A. Weakness, lassitude B. Anorexia, nauseas, fatigue C. Hypotension D. Bony expansion E. Amenorrhea
Last Answer : D. Bony expansion
Description : What is an important requisite for fillers in dental composite restorative resins in load bearing areas: A. Sub micro sized particles B. High coefficient of thermal expansion C. High in content (High filler)
Last Answer : C. High in content (High filler)
Description : High copper amalgam lasts longer than low copper amalgam because of:** A. Increased compressive strength B. Increased corrosion resistance C. High creep D. Increased tensile strength E. Decreased setting expansion
Last Answer : A. Increased compressive strength
Description : .In regard to the glass of quartz particles of filling restorative resin; the microfill resins tend to have, A. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing strength B. ... and a higher crashing strength D. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength
Last Answer : B. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength
Description : The setting expansion of casting investment is approximately A. 0 to 0.1% B. 0.1 to 0.5% C. 0.5 to 1% D. 1.1 to 1.6%
Last Answer : B. 0.1 to 0.5%