Operationally significant changes to AIP shall be published in accordance with: a. AIC’s b. AIP Supplements c. AIRAC procedures d. Trigger NOTAMS

Operationally significant changes to AIP shall be published in accordance with:  
a. AIC’s  
b. AIP Supplements  
c. AIRAC procedures  
d. Trigger NOTAMS
by

1 Answer

Answer :

c. AIRAC procedures
by

Related questions

Operationally significant changes to AIP shall be published in accordance with: a. AIC’s b. AIP Supplements c. AIRAC procedures d. Trigger NOTAMS

Description : Operationally significant changes to AIP shall be published in accordance with: a. AIC’s b. AIP Supplements c. AIRAC procedures d. Trigger NOTAMS

Last Answer : c. AIRAC procedures

An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Last Answer : d. All of the above

If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Description : If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must ... d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance

The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is: a. 500 feet (150m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300m) d. 2000 feet (600m)

Description : The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is: a. 500 feet (150m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300m) d. 2000 feet (600m)

Last Answer : c. 1000 feet (300m)

If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane, the measures that should be taken are designed to: a. Disable the device b. Find out what will trigger the device c. Prevent knowledge of the device on board getting to the passengers d. Locate and move the device to the ‘least risk’ location and apply as much padding as possible

Description : If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane, the measures that should be taken are designed to: a. Disable the device b. Find out what will trigger the device c. Prevent ... d. Locate and move the device to the least risk' location and apply as much padding as possible

Last Answer : d. Locate and move the device to the ‘least risk’ location and apply as much padding as possible

The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is: a. The beacon is saturated b. The aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response

Description : The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is: a. The beacon is saturated b. The aircraft is beyond ... is beyond line of sight range d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response

Last Answer : c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range

An investor, while reading the financial statements of Star Corporation, learned that the statements are accompanied by an unqualified auditor's report. From this the investor may conclude that: a. The auditor has ascertained that Silver's financial statements have been prepared accurately. b. The auditor is satisfied that Silver is operationally efficient. c. Any disputes over significant accounting issues have been settled to the auditor's satisfaction. d. Informative disclosures in the financial statements but not necessarily in the notes to financial statements are to be regarded as reasonably adequate

Description : An investor, while reading the financial statements of Star Corporation, learned that the statements are accompanied by an unqualified auditor's report. From this the investor may conclude that: a ... but not necessarily in the notes to financial statements are to be regarded as reasonably adequate

Last Answer : Any disputes over significant accounting issues have been settled to the auditor's satisfaction.

If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind c. Ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions

Description : With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions

Last Answer : c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions

When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Description : When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. ... by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Last Answer : c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board

When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to: a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO b. ICAO only c. Each State whose citizens were known to be on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Description : When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, ... on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Last Answer : a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO

When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Description : When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Last Answer : d. Read back mode and code

When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall: a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license c. Be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

Description : When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall: a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of ... at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

Last Answer : b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license

The loading limitations shall include: a. All limiting mass and centre of gravity b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing c. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position and floor loading d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centre of gravity

Description : The loading limitations shall include: a. All limiting mass and centre of gravity b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing c. All limiting mass ... of gravity position and floor loading d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centre of gravity

Last Answer : b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights c. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Description : Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. ... four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Last Answer : b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM c. A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for take-offs d. As the propeller control setting is changed by the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM

The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude

Description : The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude

Last Answer : b. Variations in aeroplane loading

Which of the following is an obligation of being an ICAO contracting state? a. ICAO must be informed about all new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses b. ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention c. ICAO must approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections d. ICAO must be informed about changes to national regulations

Description : Which of the following is an obligation of being an ICAO contracting state? a. ICAO must be informed about all new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses ... of tickets on international airline connections d. ICAO must be informed about changes to national regulations

Last Answer : b. ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention

What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c. Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Description : What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c ... need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Last Answer : b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not

Management’s assertions in the financial statements are relevant to the audit process because: a. They provide evidence that auditors have prepared financial statements in accordance with GAAP b. They embody the audit procedures that will be performed by the audit engagement team. c. They include representations of financial statements in accordance with the applicable reporting criteria d. They relate to regulator’s expectations about audit results

Description : Management's assertions in the financial statements are relevant to the audit process because: a. They provide evidence that auditors have prepared financial statements in accordance with GAAP b ... with the applicable reporting criteria d. They relate to regulator's expectations about audit results

Last Answer : They include representations of financial statements in accordance with the applicable reporting criteria

Management’s assertions in the financial statements are relevant to the audit process because: a. They provide evidence that auditors have prepared financial statements in accordance with GAAP b. They embody the audit procedures that will be performed by the audit engagement team. c. They include representations of financial statements in accordance with the applicable reporting criteria d. They relate to regulator’s expectations about audit results

Description : Management's assertions in the financial statements are relevant to the audit process because: a. They provide evidence that auditors have prepared financial statements in accordance with GAAP b ... with the applicable reporting criteria d. They relate to regulator's expectations about audit results

Last Answer : They include representations of financial statements in accordance with the applicable reporting criteria

An auditor may accept an engagement to perform specified procedures on the specific subject matter of specified elements, accounts, or items of a financial statement if a. The report does not list the procedures performed. b. The auditor is also the entity's continuing auditor. c. The financial statements are prepared in accordance with a special purpose framework. d. Use of the report is restricted

Description : An auditor may accept an engagement to perform specified procedures on the specific subject matter of specified elements, accounts, or items of a financial statement if a. The report does not list ... are prepared in accordance with a special purpose framework. d. Use of the report is restricted

Last Answer : Use of the report is restricted

Assurance engagement include the following, except a. An engagement conducted to provide a high level of assurance that the subject matter conforms in all material respects with identified suitable criteria. b. An engagement conducted to provide a moderate level of assurance that the subject matter is plausible in the circumstances. c. An engagement in accordance with the Philippine Standard on Assurance Engagement(s). d. An engagement to perform agreedupon procedures

Description : Assurance engagement include the following, except a. An engagement conducted to provide a high level of assurance that the subject matter conforms in all material respects with identified suitable ... Philippine Standard on Assurance Engagement(s). d. An engagement to perform agreedupon procedures

Last Answer : An engagement to perform procedures.

Which of the following statements about independent financial statement audit is incorrect? a. The term "scope of the audit" refers to audit procedures deemed necessary ithe circumstances to achieve the objective of the audit. b. The auditor's opinion enhances the credibility of the financial statements. c. The phrase used to express the auditor's opinion is "present fairly, in all material respects". d. The risk that the auditor will fail to uncover material misstatement is eliminated when the auditor conducts the audit in accordance with PSAs.n

Description : Which of the following statements about independent financial statement audit is incorrect? a. The term "scope of the audit" refers to audit procedures deemed necessary in the circumstances ... uncover material misstatement is eliminated when the auditor conducts the audit in accordance with PSAs.

Last Answer : The risk that the auditor will fail to uncover material misstatement is eliminated when the auditor conducts the audit in accordance with PSAs.

Which of the following statements about independent financial statement audit is correct? a. The audit of financial statements relieves management of its responsibilities for die financial statements. b. An audit is designed to provide limited assurance that the financial statements taken as a whole are free from material misstatement. c. The auditor's opinion is not an assurance as to the future viability of the entity as well as the effectiveness and efficiency withwhich management has conductedthe affairs of the entity.d. The procedures required to conduct anaudit in accordance with PSAs shouldbe determined by the client whoengaged the services of the auditor

Description : Which of the following statements about independent financial statement audit is correct? a. The audit of financial statements relieves management of its responsibilities for die financial statements. b. An ... with PSAs should be determined by the client who engaged the services of the auditor

Last Answer : The auditor's opinion is not an assurance as to the future viability of the entity as well as the effectiveness and efficiency withwhich management has conducted the affairs of the entity.

An audit of financial statements is conducted to determine if the a. Organization is operating efficiently and effectively b. Client's internal control is functioning as intended. c. Auditee is following specific procedures or rules set down by some higher authority d. Overall financial statements are stated in accordance with an identified financial reporting framework

Description : An audit of financial statements is conducted to determine if the a. Organization is operating efficiently and effectively b. Client's internal control is functioning as intended. c. ... d. Overall financial statements are stated in accordance with an identified financial reporting framework

Last Answer : Overall financial statements are stated in accordance with an identified financial reporting framework

Which of the following most completely describes how independence has been defined by the CPA profession? a. Performing an audit from the viewpoint of the public. b. Avoiding the appearance of significant interests in the affairs of an audit client. c. Possessing the ability to act with integrity and objectivity. d. Possessing the ability to act professionally and accordance with a professional code of ethics.

Description : Which of the following most completely describes how independence has been defined by the CPA profession? a. Performing an audit from the viewpoint of the public. b. Avoiding the appearance of ... . d. Possessing the ability to act professionally and accordance with a professional code of ethics.

Last Answer : Possessing the ability to act with integrity and objectivity.

Which Article of the 1973 Constitution provides that no personal shall be deprived of life or liberty save in accordance with law? A. Article 6 B. Article 8 C. Article 9 D. Article 10

Description : Which Article of the 1973 Constitution provides that no personal shall be deprived of life or liberty save in accordance with law? A. Article 6 B. Article 8 C. Article 9 D. Article 10

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

Depreciation under ICDS-V shall be charged in accordance with : a) Income Tax Act 1961 b) Companies Act 2013 c) Notified Rate –CBEC d) Straight line over the useful life

Description : Depreciation under ICDS-V shall be charged in accordance with : a) Income Tax Act 1961 b) Companies Act 2013 c) Notified Rate –CBEC d) Straight line over the useful life

Last Answer : a) Income Tax Act 1961

Which of the following is correct about cold blooded animals? (1) Their blood remains cold all the time (2) Their body temperature changes in accordance with the atmosphere (3) Their body temperature remains constant all the time (4) They kill all the animals they come across (SSC Combined Graduate Level Prelim Exam.

Description : Which of the following is correct about cold blooded animals? (1) Their blood remains cold all the time (2) Their body temperature changes in accordance with the atmosphere (3) Their body temperature ... time (4) They kill all the animals they come across (SSC Combined Graduate Level Prelim Exam.

Last Answer : (2) Their body temperature changes in accordance with the atmosphere Explanation: A cold blooded animal, or ectotherm, is one that does not have an internal mechanism for regulating its body ... of cold blooded animals. -For any Study materialContact WhatsApp: 8337932441 Join Telegram- Click here

Which of the following is correct about cold blooded animals ? (1) Their blood remains cold all the time (2) Their body temperature changes in accordance with the atmosphere (3) Their body temperature remains constant all the time (4) They kill all the animals they come across

Description : Which of the following is correct about cold blooded animals ? (1) Their blood remains cold all the time (2) Their body temperature changes in accordance with the atmosphere (3) Their body temperature remains constant all the time (4) They kill all the animals they come across

Last Answer : Their body temperature changes in accordance with the atmosphere

An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Last Answer : d. All of the above

If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Description : If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Last Answer : d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

Description : The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

Last Answer : d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

Description : If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

Last Answer : b. An increased rate of roll

If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same

Description : If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same

Last Answer : a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper

An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1

Description : An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1

Last Answer : b. 15:1

What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack b. The same true airspeed and angle of attack c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack d. A constant angle of attack and true airspeed

Description : What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack b. The same true ... c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack d. A constant angle of attack and true airspeed

Last Answer : a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust

Description : To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust

Last Answer : b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force

Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind d. Increasing headwind or tailwind

Description : Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind d. Increasing headwind or tailwind

Last Answer : c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind

What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack c. An increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Description : What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement ... increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Last Answer : b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack

An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt

Description : An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt

Last Answer : c. 99kt

A yaw damper: a. Increases rudder effectiveness b. Must be disengaged before making a turn c. Augments stability d. Increases the rate of yaw

Description : A yaw damper: a. Increases rudder effectiveness b. Must be disengaged before making a turn c. Augments stability d. Increases the rate of yaw

Last Answer : c. Augments stability

If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered c. The lift would decrease d. The acceleration would increase

Description : If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered c. The lift would decrease d. The acceleration would increase

Last Answer : b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered

What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications b. Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude

Description : What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed ... shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude

Last Answer : c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power

If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

Description : If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

Last Answer : b. increased

t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

Description : t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

Last Answer : a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster