Operationally significant changes to AIP shall be published in accordance with: a. AIC’s b. AIP Supplements c. AIRAC procedures d. Trigger NOTAMS

Operationally significant changes to AIP shall be published in accordance with:
a. AIC’s
b. AIP Supplements
c. AIRAC procedures
d. Trigger NOTAMS
by

1 Answer

Answer :

c. AIRAC procedures
by

Related questions

Operationally significant changes to AIP shall be published in accordance with: a. AIC’s b. AIP Supplements c. AIRAC procedures d. Trigger NOTAMS

Description : Operationally significant changes to AIP shall be published in accordance with: a. AIC’s b. AIP Supplements c. AIRAC procedures d. Trigger NOTAMS

Last Answer : c. AIRAC procedures

An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Last Answer : d. All of the above

f an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Description : f an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance

The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is: a. 500 feet (150m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300m) d. 2000 feet (600m)

Description : The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is: a. 500 feet (150m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300m) d. 2000 feet (600m)

Last Answer : c. 1000 feet (300m)

An investor, while reading the financial statements of Star Corporation, learned that the statements are accompanied by an unqualified auditor's report. From this the investor may conclude that: a. The auditor has ascertained that Silver's financial statements have been prepared accurately. b. The auditor is satisfied that Silver is operationally efficient. c. Any disputes over significant accounting issues have been settled to the auditor's satisfaction. d. Informative disclosures in the financial statements but not necessarily in the notes to financial statements are to be regarded as reasonably adequate

Description : An investor, while reading the financial statements of Star Corporation, learned that the statements are accompanied by an unqualified auditor's report. From this the investor may conclude that: a ... but not necessarily in the notes to financial statements are to be regarded as reasonably adequate

Last Answer : Any disputes over significant accounting issues have been settled to the auditor's satisfaction.

If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind c. Ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions d. Rely on the checklist for all procedures

Description : With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions d. Rely on the checklist for all procedures

Last Answer : c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions

When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to: a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO b. ICAO only c. Each State whose citizens were known to be on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Description : When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, ... be on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Last Answer : a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO

When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Description : When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Last Answer : d. Read back mode and code

When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall: a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license c. Be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

Description : When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall: a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of ... Be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

Last Answer : b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license

The loading limitations shall include: a. All limiting mass and centre of gravity b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing c. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position and floor loading d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centre of gravity

Description : The loading limitations shall include: a. All limiting mass and centre of gravity b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing c. All limiting mass, ... of gravity position and floor loading d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centre of gravity

Last Answer : b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights c. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Description : Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. ... off four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Last Answer : b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

Which of the following is an obligation of being an ICAO contracting state? a. ICAO must be informed about all new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses b. ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention c. ICAO must approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections d. ICAO must be informed about changes to national regulations

Description : Which of the following is an obligation of being an ICAO contracting state? a. ICAO must be informed about all new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses ... of tickets on international airline connections d. ICAO must be informed about changes to national regulations

Last Answer : b. ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention

What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c. Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Description : What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c. ... need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Last Answer : b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not

Management’s assertions in the financial statements are relevant to the audit process because: a. They provide evidence that auditors have prepared financial statements in accordance with GAAP b. They embody the audit procedures that will be performed by the audit engagement team. c. They include representations of financial statements in accordance with the applicable reporting criteria d. They relate to regulator’s expectations about audit results

Description : Management's assertions in the financial statements are relevant to the audit process because: a. They provide evidence that auditors have prepared financial statements in accordance with GAAP b ... with the applicable reporting criteria d. They relate to regulator's expectations about audit results

Last Answer : They include representations of financial statements in accordance with the applicable reporting criteria

Management’s assertions in the financial statements are relevant to the audit process because: a. They provide evidence that auditors have prepared financial statements in accordance with GAAP b. They embody the audit procedures that will be performed by the audit engagement team. c. They include representations of financial statements in accordance with the applicable reporting criteria d. They relate to regulator’s expectations about audit results

Description : Management's assertions in the financial statements are relevant to the audit process because: a. They provide evidence that auditors have prepared financial statements in accordance with GAAP b ... with the applicable reporting criteria d. They relate to regulator's expectations about audit results

Last Answer : They include representations of financial statements in accordance with the applicable reporting criteria

An auditor may accept an engagement to perform specified procedures on the specific subject matter of specified elements, accounts, or items of a financial statement if a. The report does not list the procedures performed. b. The auditor is also the entity's continuing auditor. c. The financial statements are prepared in accordance with a special purpose framework. d. Use of the report is restricted

Description : An auditor may accept an engagement to perform specified procedures on the specific subject matter of specified elements, accounts, or items of a financial statement if a. The report does not list ... are prepared in accordance with a special purpose framework. d. Use of the report is restricted

Last Answer : Use of the report is restricted

Assurance engagement include the following, except a. An engagement conducted to provide a high level of assurance that the subject matter conforms in all material respects with identified suitable criteria. b. An engagement conducted to provide a moderate level of assurance that the subject matter is plausible in the circumstances. c. An engagement in accordance with the Philippine Standard on Assurance Engagement(s). d. An engagement to perform agreedupon procedures

Description : Assurance engagement include the following, except a. An engagement conducted to provide a high level of assurance that the subject matter conforms in all material respects with identified suitable ... Philippine Standard on Assurance Engagement(s). d. An engagement to perform agreedupon procedures

Last Answer : An engagement to perform procedures.

Which of the following statements about independent financial statement audit is incorrect? a. The term "scope of the audit" refers to audit procedures deemed necessary ithe circumstances to achieve the objective of the audit. b. The auditor's opinion enhances the credibility of the financial statements. c. The phrase used to express the auditor's opinion is "present fairly, in all material respects". d. The risk that the auditor will fail to uncover material misstatement is eliminated when the auditor conducts the audit in accordance with PSAs.n

Description : Which of the following statements about independent financial statement audit is incorrect? a. The term "scope of the audit" refers to audit procedures deemed necessary in the circumstances ... uncover material misstatement is eliminated when the auditor conducts the audit in accordance with PSAs.

Last Answer : The risk that the auditor will fail to uncover material misstatement is eliminated when the auditor conducts the audit in accordance with PSAs.

Which of the following statements about independent financial statement audit is correct? a. The audit of financial statements relieves management of its responsibilities for die financial statements. b. An audit is designed to provide limited assurance that the financial statements taken as a whole are free from material misstatement. c. The auditor's opinion is not an assurance as to the future viability of the entity as well as the effectiveness and efficiency withwhich management has conductedthe affairs of the entity.d. The procedures required to conduct anaudit in accordance with PSAs shouldbe determined by the client whoengaged the services of the auditor

Description : Which of the following statements about independent financial statement audit is correct? a. The audit of financial statements relieves management of its responsibilities for die financial statements. b. An ... with PSAs should be determined by the client who engaged the services of the auditor

Last Answer : The auditor's opinion is not an assurance as to the future viability of the entity as well as the effectiveness and efficiency withwhich management has conducted the affairs of the entity.

An audit of financial statements is conducted to determine if the a. Organization is operating efficiently and effectively b. Client's internal control is functioning as intended. c. Auditee is following specific procedures or rules set down by some higher authority d. Overall financial statements are stated in accordance with an identified financial reporting framework

Description : An audit of financial statements is conducted to determine if the a. Organization is operating efficiently and effectively b. Client's internal control is functioning as intended. c. ... d. Overall financial statements are stated in accordance with an identified financial reporting framework

Last Answer : Overall financial statements are stated in accordance with an identified financial reporting framework

Which of the following most completely describes how independence has been defined by the CPA profession? a. Performing an audit from the viewpoint of the public. b. Avoiding the appearance of significant interests in the affairs of an audit client. c. Possessing the ability to act with integrity and objectivity. d. Possessing the ability to act professionally and accordance with a professional code of ethics.

Description : Which of the following most completely describes how independence has been defined by the CPA profession? a. Performing an audit from the viewpoint of the public. b. Avoiding the appearance of ... . d. Possessing the ability to act professionally and accordance with a professional code of ethics.

Last Answer : Possessing the ability to act with integrity and objectivity.

Which Article of the 1973 Constitution provides that no personal shall be deprived of life or liberty save in accordance with law? A. Article 6 B. Article 8 C. Article 9 D. Article 10

Description : Which Article of the 1973 Constitution provides that no personal shall be deprived of life or liberty save in accordance with law? A. Article 6 B. Article 8 C. Article 9 D. Article 10

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

Depreciation under ICDS-V shall be charged in accordance with : a) Income Tax Act 1961 b) Companies Act 2013 c) Notified Rate –CBEC d) Straight line over the useful life

Description : Depreciation under ICDS-V shall be charged in accordance with : a) Income Tax Act 1961 b) Companies Act 2013 c) Notified Rate –CBEC d) Straight line over the useful life

Last Answer : a) Income Tax Act 1961

Which of the following is correct about cold blooded animals? (1) Their blood remains cold all the time (2) Their body temperature changes in accordance with the atmosphere (3) Their body temperature remains constant all the time (4) They kill all the animals they come across (SSC Combined Graduate Level Prelim Exam.

Description : Which of the following is correct about cold blooded animals? (1) Their blood remains cold all the time (2) Their body temperature changes in accordance with the atmosphere (3) Their body temperature ... time (4) They kill all the animals they come across (SSC Combined Graduate Level Prelim Exam.

Last Answer : (2) Their body temperature changes in accordance with the atmosphere Explanation: A cold blooded animal, or ectotherm, is one that does not have an internal mechanism for regulating its body ... of cold blooded animals. -For any Study materialContact WhatsApp: 8337932441 Join Telegram- Click here

Which of the following is correct about cold blooded animals ? (1) Their blood remains cold all the time (2) Their body temperature changes in accordance with the atmosphere (3) Their body temperature remains constant all the time (4) They kill all the animals they come across

Description : Which of the following is correct about cold blooded animals ? (1) Their blood remains cold all the time (2) Their body temperature changes in accordance with the atmosphere (3) Their body temperature remains constant all the time (4) They kill all the animals they come across

Last Answer : Their body temperature changes in accordance with the atmosphere

An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Last Answer : d. All of the above

You're 36,000 ft. above earth and a hole erupts in the fuselage of the aircraft you are in. What are your thoughts and what would you do?

Description : You're 36,000 ft. above earth and a hole erupts in the fuselage of the aircraft you are in. What are your thoughts and what would you do?

Last Answer : I am not very religious but I think I would pray.

When did FEDEX add the B777 to their fleet?

Description : When did FEDEX add the B777 to their fleet?

Last Answer : UScitizen Try this ==> http://mediacenter.fedex.designcdt.com/taxonomy/term/753 Last fall.

Aircraft Carrier

Description : Aircraft Carrier

Last Answer : An aircraft carrier gets about 6 inches per gallon of fuel.

What Positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?

Description : What Positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?

Last Answer : OSITIONS WITH THE SAME AIR PRESSURE AT A GIVEN LEVEL

The station pressure used in surface weather charts is

Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is

Last Answer : Qff

If you are flying at FL300 in an airmass that is 15*C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?

Description :  If you are flying at FL300 in an airmass that is 15*C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the  outside temperature likely to be?

Last Answer : 30*C

How would you characterize an air temperature of -55*C at the 200HPA level over western Europe?

Description : How would you characterize an air temperature of -55*C at the 200HPA level over western Europe?

Last Answer : WITH IN + 5*C OF ISA

What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?

Description : What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?

Last Answer : TROPOPAUSE

The greater the pressure gradient the: a. Closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures b. Further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind

Description : The greater the pressure gradient the:  a. Closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures  b. Further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature  c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind

Last Answer : c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind

In an area of converging air a. Clouds cannot be formed b. Clouds can be formed c. Convective clouds can be dissolved d. Stratified clouds can be dissolved

Description : In an area of converging air  a. Clouds cannot be formed  b. Clouds can be formed  c. Convective clouds can be dissolved  d. Stratified clouds can be dissolved

Last Answer : b. Clouds can be formed

In which zone of a jetstream is the strongest CAT to be expected? a. The warm air side of the core b. Exactly in the center of the core c. About 12,000ft above the core d. The cold air side of the core

Description : In which zone of a jetstream is the strongest CAT to be expected?  a. The warm air side of the core  b. Exactly in the center of the core  c. About 12,000ft above the core  d. The cold air side of the core

Last Answer : d. The cold air side of the core

From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You  experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action?  a. Stay level  b. Descend  c. Climb  d. Reduce speed

Last Answer : b. Descend 

Refer to the following TAF for Zurich LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is: a. 6km b. 6nm c. 4km d. 10km

Description : Refer to the following TAF for Zurich   LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 –DZ  BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=  The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:  a. 6km  b. 6nm  c. 4km  d. 10km

Last Answer : a. 6km

Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for runway 16 1500m, temperature -3°C, vertical visibility 100m b. Meteorological visibility 200ft, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500m, vertical visibility 100ft, fog with hoar frost c. Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800m, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500m d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?   00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =  a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility  improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

Last Answer : d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility  improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means: a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers

Description : The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means:  a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers  b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers  c. Becoming from 1100UTC rain showers  d. Becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers

Last Answer : b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers

What is the coldest time of the day? a. 1hr before sunrise b. 1/2 hr before sunrise c. At exact moment of sunrise d. 1/2 hour after sunrise

Description : What is the coldest time of the day?  a. 1hr before sunrise  b. 1/2 hr before sunrise  c. At exact moment of sunrise  d. 1/2 hour after sunrise

Last Answer : d. 1/2 hour after sunrise

The station pressure used in surface weather charts is: a. QNE b. QFF c. QFE d. QNH

Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is:  a. QNE  b. QFF  c. QFE  d. QNH

Last Answer : a. QNE

With regard to RVR and Met vis: a. Met vis is usually less than RVR b. Met vis is usually greater than RVR c. RVR is usually less than met vis d. Met vis and RVR are usually the same

Description : With regard to RVR and Met vis:  a. Met vis is usually less than RVR  b. Met vis is usually greater than RVR  c. RVR is usually less than met vis  d. Met vis and RVR are usually the same

Last Answer : a. Met vis is usually less than RVR

Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 30,065 ft pressure level (FL 300)? a. 200 hPa b. 700 hPa c. 500 hPa d. 300 hPa

Description : Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 30,065 ft pressure level (FL 300)?  a. 200 hPa  b. 700 hPa  c. 500 hPa  d. 300 hPa

Last Answer : d. 300 hPa

In what frequency band is the ATIS normally broadcasted? a. LF b. HF c. ADF d. VHF

Description : In what frequency band is the ATIS normally broadcasted?  a. LF  b. HF  c. ADF  d. VHF

Last Answer : d. VHF