The loading limitations shall include: a. All limiting mass and centre of gravity b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing c. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position and floor loading d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centre of gravity

The loading limitations shall include:  
a. All limiting mass and centre of gravity  
b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing  c. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position and floor loading  
d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centre of gravity
by

1 Answer

Answer :

b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing
by

Related questions

The loading limitations shall include: a. All limiting mass and centre of gravity b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing c. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position and floor loading d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centre of gravity

Description : The loading limitations shall include: a. All limiting mass and centre of gravity b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing c. All limiting mass, ... of gravity position and floor loading d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centre of gravity

Last Answer : b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing

When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to: a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO b. ICAO only c. Each State whose citizens were known to be on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Description : When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, ... on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Last Answer : a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights c. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Description : Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. ... four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Last Answer : b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: LRC, at FL330 outside air temperature -30C. Find estimated trip fuel and time. a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V ... b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Last Answer : a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg Headwind component 25kt The alternate fuel required is: a. 2550kg b. 2800kg c. 2900kg d. 2650kg

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg Headwind component 25kt The alternate fuel required is: a. 2550kg b. 2800kg c. 2900kg d. 2650kg

Last Answer : b. 2800kg

DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel Which of the following is correct? a. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,193kg b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg

Description : DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel Which of the following is correct? a. Estimated landing mass at destination ... 43,295kg c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg

Last Answer : b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg

An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign, position, route, destination, endurance c. Name of station addressed, callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain’s number, rank and name

Description : An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign ... , callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain's number, rank and name

Last Answer : a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading

If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

Description : If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

Last Answer : b. increased

t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

Description : t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

Last Answer : a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster

Lowering the flaps during a landing approach: a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed b. Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power c. Eliminates floating d. Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed

Description : Lowering the flaps during a landing approach: a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed b. Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power c. Eliminates floating d. Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed

Last Answer : a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed

Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

Description : Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

Last Answer : c. 5

A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency c. Enables a landing if it is suspected that the undercarriage is not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

Description : A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a ... not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

Last Answer : b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency

Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3

Description : Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3

Last Answer : b. 5

In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services? a. ATC b. The Commander c. The local constabulary d. The Operations Dispatcher

Description : In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services? a. ATC b. The Commander c. The local constabulary d. The Operations Dispatcher

Last Answer : a. ATC

When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC b. If the flight time is less than 6 hours c. If the flight time is less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

Description : When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC ... less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

Last Answer : a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC

To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have: a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently

Description : To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have: a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently

Last Answer : a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days

What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Description : What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Last Answer : a. From take-off to overhead destination

When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

Last Answer : c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP

You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Last Answer : c. 30 mins

An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Description : An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Last Answer : b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable

What do three green lights represent when the landing gear is selected down? a. The gear is down b. The gear is down and locked c. The gear and doors are down and locked d. The gear is travelling between up and down

Description : What do three green lights represent when the landing gear is selected down? a. The gear is down b. The gear is down and locked c. The gear and doors are down and locked d. The gear is travelling between up and down

Last Answer : b. The gear is down and locked

What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height? a. Fail soft b. Fail passive c. Fail operational or fail active d. Land 2 system

Description : What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height? a. Fail soft b. Fail passive c. Fail operational or fail active d. Land 2 system

Last Answer : D. All of the above

A hand pump is usually fitted: a. For ground servicing purposes b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air d. Retracting the gear after take-off

Description : A hand pump is usually fitted: a. For ground servicing purposes b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air d. Retracting the gear after take-off

Last Answer : a. For ground servicing purposes

When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Description : When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Last Answer : d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude

Description : The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude

Last Answer : b. Variations in aeroplane loading

In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional airflow to the pressurization systems c. Maintain the aeroplane altitude to prevent further damage to the airframe by over loading of the structure d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Description : In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional ... a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Last Answer : d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

A shuttle valve will: a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve

Description : A shuttle valve will: a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve

Last Answer : c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply

When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Description : When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. ... by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Last Answer : c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board

When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Description : When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Last Answer : d. Read back mode and code

When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall: a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license c. Be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

Description : When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall: a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of ... at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

Last Answer : b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC

Operationally significant changes to AIP shall be published in accordance with: a. AIC’s b. AIP Supplements c. AIRAC procedures d. Trigger NOTAMS

Description : Operationally significant changes to AIP shall be published in accordance with: a. AIC’s b. AIP Supplements c. AIRAC procedures d. Trigger NOTAMS

Last Answer : c. AIRAC procedures

Decision making in emergency situations requires primarily: a. Speed of reaction b. The distribution of tasks and crew coordination c. Strong situational awareness d. The whole crew to focus on the immediate problem

Description : Decision making in emergency situations requires primarily: a. Speed of reaction b. The distribution of tasks and crew coordination c. Strong situational awareness d. The whole crew to focus on the immediate problem

Last Answer : b. The distribution of tasks and crew coordination

The callsign suffix for an airfield without radar would be: a. APPROACH b. CENTRE c. INFORMATION d. RADIO

Description : The callsign suffix for an airfield without radar would be: a. APPROACH b. CENTRE c. INFORMATION d. RADIO

Last Answer : a. APPROACH

During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line

Description : During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line

Last Answer : c. Within 15° of runway centre-line

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that: a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories b. TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircrafts which carry more than 30 passengers. While TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft. c. TCAS I can be fitted aircrafts which carry transponders with Mode A only while TCAS II can be fitted to aircrafts whose transponders include either Mode C or Mode S. d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that: a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic ... C or Mode S. d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

Last Answer : a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories

Why do we need to know the centre of mass of an object? For which objects, its position may differ from that of the centre of gravity?

Description : Why do we need to know the centre of mass of an object? For which objects, its position may differ from that of the centre of gravity?

Last Answer : Why do we need to know the centre of mass of an object? For which objects, its position may differ from ... g = 10 m s-2, unless, otherwise stated.

To ensure some degree of longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the CG: a. Must always coincide with the AC b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point c. Must be aft of the Neutral Point d. Must not be forward of the aft CG limi

Description : To ensure some degree of longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the CG: a. Must always coincide with the AC b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point c. Must be aft of the Neutral Point d. Must not be forward of the aft CG limi

Last Answer : b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point

From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be used? a. Green b. Red c. White d. All of the above

Description : From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be used? a. Green b. Red c. White d. All of the above

Last Answer : b. Red

The correct format for the input of position 50N 00527E to the CDU is: a. 5000.0N00527.0E b. N50E00527 c. N5000.0E00527.0 d. N5000E00527

Description : The correct format for the input of position 50N 00527E to the CDU is: a. 5000.0N00527.0E b. N50E00527 c. N5000.0E00527.0 d. N5000E00527

Last Answer : c. N5000.0E00527.0

The FMC position will be at its most inaccurate: a. On take-off b. At TOC c. At TOD d. On final approach

Description : The FMC position will be at its most inaccurate: a. On take-off b. At TOC c. At TOD d. On final approach

Last Answer : c. At TOD

The IRS position can be updated: a. On the ground only b. At designated positions en-route and on the ground c. On the ground and overhead VOR/DME d. At selected waypoints and on the ground

Description : The IRS position can be updated: a. On the ground only b. At designated positions en-route and on the ground c. On the ground and overhead VOR/DME d. At selected waypoints and on the ground

Last Answer : a. On the ground only

How is fuel consumption affect by the C of G position, in terms of ANM/kg? a. Increases with a forward C of G b. Decreases with an aft C of G c. Decreases with a forward C of G d. Fuel consumption is not affected by the C of G position

Description : How is fuel consumption affect by the C of G position, in terms of ANM/kg? a. Increases with a forward C of G b. Decreases with an aft C of G c. Decreases with a forward C of G d. Fuel consumption is not affected by the C of G position

Last Answer : c. Decreases with a forward C of G

The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is: a. Consider the transmission as not sent b. Proceed with your message c. Wait and I will call you d. Hold your present position

Description : The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is: a. Consider the transmission as not sent b. Proceed with your message c. Wait and I will call you d. Hold your present position

Last Answer : c. Wait and I will call you

What cannot be left out from a position report? a. Callsign, Flight Level and Time b. Callsign, Position and Time c. Position, Time, Flight Level, Next position and ETA d. Your signature

Description : What cannot be left out from a position report? a. Callsign, Flight Level and Time b. Callsign, Position and Time c. Position, Time, Flight Level, Next position and ETA d. Your signature

Last Answer : b. Callsign, Position and Time

What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled airspace unless otherwise directed? a. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the heading b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the estimated position of the aircraft c. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track d. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track

Description : What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled airspace unless otherwise directed? a. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of ... planned track d. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track

Last Answer : b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the estimated position of the aircraft

A pressure head is subject to the following errors: a. Position, manoeuvre induced, temperature b. Position, manoeuvre induced c. Position, manoeuvre induced, density d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument

Description : A pressure head is subject to the following errors: a. Position, manoeuvre induced, temperature b. Position, manoeuvre induced c. Position, manoeuvre induced, density d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument

Last Answer : d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument

A nose wheel control system a. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position c. Allows the nosewheel to caster freely at all times d. Prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralised

Description : A nose wheel control system a. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position c. Allows the nosewheel to ... freely at all times d. Prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralised

Last Answer : b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position

CAS is IAS corrected for: a. Position and instrument error b. Instrument, pressure, and density error c. Relative density only d. Compressibility

Description : CAS is IAS corrected for: a. Position and instrument error b. Instrument, pressure, and density error c. Relative density only d. Compressibility

Last Answer : a. Position and instrument error