From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You  experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action?  
a. Stay level  
b. Descend  
c. Climb  
d. Reduce speed
by

1 Answer

Answer :

b. Descend
by

Related questions

From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You  experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action?  a. Stay level  b. Descend  c. Climb  d. Reduce speed

Last Answer : b. Descend 

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain

Description : If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain

Last Answer : c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible

What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects? a. Change of flight level b. Change of course c. Increase of speed d. Decrease of speed

Description : What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects? a. Change of flight level b. Change of course c. Increase of speed d. Decrease of speed

Last Answer : a. Change of flight level

During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls

Description : During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls

Last Answer : b. The importance of crew coordination

A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure to relieve the symptoms c. Continue the flight at a lower altitude and carry out exercises to relieve the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Maximum endurance: a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight c. Can be achieved in a steady climb d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling

Description : Maximum endurance: a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight c. Can be achieved in a steady climb d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling

Last Answer : a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption

If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain

Description : If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain

Last Answer : c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible

When must a radiation indicator be carried? a. For flight above 29,000ft b. For flight above 39,000ft c. For flight above 49,000ft d. For flight above 59,000ft

Description : When must a radiation indicator be carried? a. For flight above 29,000ft b. For flight above 39,000ft c. For flight above 49,000ft d. For flight above 59,000ft

Last Answer : c. For flight above 49,000ft

At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft

Description : At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft

Last Answer : d. 41,000ft

At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft

Description : At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft

Last Answer : d. 41,000ft

The transition of altitude to flight level and vice versa is made: a. On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent c. At the transition level only d. At the transition altitude only

Description : The transition of altitude to flight level and vice versa is made: a. On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent c. At the transition level only d. At the transition altitude only

Last Answer : b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent

When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Description : When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. ... by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Last Answer : c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board

If so equipped, when should an aircraft display the anti-collision light? a. Only at night in flight, but not on the ground if being towed b. Whilst taxiing but not whilst being towed c. Only at night with engines running d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

Description : If so equipped, when should an aircraft display the anti-collision light? a. Only at night in flight, but not on the ground if being towed b. Whilst taxiing but not whilst being towed c. Only at night with engines running d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

Last Answer : d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

In which zone of a jetstream is the strongest CAT to be expected? a. The warm air side of the core b. Exactly in the center of the core c. About 12,000ft above the core d. The cold air side of the core

Description : In which zone of a jetstream is the strongest CAT to be expected? a. The warm air side of the core b. Exactly in the center of the core c. About 12,000ft above the core d. The cold air side of the core

Last Answer : d. The cold air side of the core

A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a pilot only if he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a ... he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Last Answer : d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF

Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF

Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach

Where is the 300mb level approximately in ISA? a. 30,000ft b. 39,000ft c. 18,000ft d. 10,000ft

Description : Where is the 300mb level approximately in ISA? a. 30,000ft b. 39,000ft c. 18,000ft d. 10,000ft

Last Answer : a. 30,000ft

What are the key points of a good briefing? a. Individual, understood and simple b. Individual, clear and simple c. Individual, understood and short d. Simple, clear, understood and individual

Description : What are the key points of a good briefing? a. Individual, understood and simple b. Individual, clear and simple c. Individual, understood and short d. Simple, clear, understood and individual

Last Answer : c. Individual, understood and short

What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects? a. Change of flight level b. Change of course c. Increase of speed d. Decrease of speed

Description : What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?  a. Change of flight level  b. Change of course  c. Increase of speed  d. Decrease of speed

Last Answer : a. Change of flight level

Fuel is to be jettisoned: a. Over the sea and then only above 10,000ft b. Over the sea or over land above 10,000ft AGL c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency d. Over the sea, or over land above 4000ft in summer or 7000ft in winter

Description : Fuel is to be jettisoned: a. Over the sea and then only above 10,000ft b. Over the sea or over land above 10,000ft AGL c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency d. Over the sea, or over land above 4000ft in summer or 7000ft in winter

Last Answer : c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency

How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability

The Critical Zone of hypoxia begins at: a. 18,000ft b. 20,000ft c. 23,000ft d. 3,600ft

Description : The Critical Zone of hypoxia begins at: a. 18,000ft b. 20,000ft c. 23,000ft d. 3,600ft

Last Answer : b. 20,000ft

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt

Last Answer : c. 25,000ft & 435kt

The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft

Description : The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft

Last Answer : b. 10,000ft

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: LRC, at FL330 outside air temperature -30C. Find estimated trip fuel and time. a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V ... b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Last Answer : a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min

An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Last Answer : d. All of the above

An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt

Description : An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt

Last Answer : c. 99kt

To give the best obstacle clearance on take-off, take-off should be made with: a. Flaps partially extended and at best rate of climb speed (Vy) b. Flaps partially extended and at best angle of climb speed (Vx) c. Flaps retracted and at best rate of climb speed (Vy) d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)

Description : To give the best obstacle clearance on take-off, take-off should be made with: a. Flaps partially extended and at best rate of climb speed (Vy) b. Flaps partially extended and at best angle of climb ... at best rate of climb speed (Vy) d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)

Last Answer : d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)

A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Description : A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Last Answer : c. Excess engine power

During general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize the

Description : During general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize the

Last Answer : importance of crew coordination

During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls

Description : During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls

Last Answer : b. The importance of crew coordination

If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Description : If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The ... temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Last Answer : d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that: a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories b. TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircrafts which carry more than 30 passengers. While TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft. c. TCAS I can be fitted aircrafts which carry transponders with Mode A only while TCAS II can be fitted to aircrafts whose transponders include either Mode C or Mode S. d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that: a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic ... C or Mode S. d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

Last Answer : a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories

If a jet engine fails during take-off before V1: a. The take-off can be continued or aborted b. The take-off should be aborted c. The take-off should be continued d. The take-off may be continued if the aircraft speed is above VMCG and lies between VGO and VSTOP

Description : If a jet engine fails during take-off before V1: a. The take-off can be continued or aborted b. The take-off should be aborted c. The take-off should be continued d. The take-off may be continued if the aircraft speed is above VMCG and lies between VGO and VSTOP

Last Answer : b. The take-off should be aborted

On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Description : On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Last Answer : a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately

What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible c. Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible

The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Description : The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Last Answer : b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required

The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude

Description : The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude

Last Answer : b. Variations in aeroplane loading

At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft

Which of the following would give the best indication of speed? a. A VOR on the flight plan route b. A VOR off the flight plan route c. A DME on the flight plan route d. A DME off the flight plan route

Description : Which of the following would give the best indication of speed? a. A VOR on the flight plan route b. A VOR off the flight plan route c. A DME on the flight plan route d. A DME off the flight plan route

Last Answer : c. A DME on the flight plan route

Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight? a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal b. These forces are equal c. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal

Description : Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight? a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal b. These forces are equal ... greater than weight d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal

Last Answer : b. These forces are equal

The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: a. At flight level b. At height of observatory c. At a determined density altitude d. Reduced to sea level

Description : The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: a. At flight level b. At height of observatory c. At a determined density altitude d. Reduced to sea level

Last Answer : d. Reduced to sea level

How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

Description : How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

Last Answer : a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA

True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Description : True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Last Answer : b. FL140

What cannot be left out from a position report? a. Callsign, Flight Level and Time b. Callsign, Position and Time c. Position, Time, Flight Level, Next position and ETA d. Your signature

Description : What cannot be left out from a position report? a. Callsign, Flight Level and Time b. Callsign, Position and Time c. Position, Time, Flight Level, Next position and ETA d. Your signature

Last Answer : b. Callsign, Position and Time

If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Description : If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Last Answer : b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission

Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

Description : Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance

A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Description : A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Last Answer : d. 2%