In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional airflow to the pressurization systems c. Maintain the aeroplane altitude to prevent further damage to the airframe by over loading of the structure d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to:  
a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate  
b. Increase engine power to provide additional airflow to the pressurization systems  c. Maintain the aeroplane altitude to prevent further damage to the airframe by over  loading of the structure  
d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is  sufficient for all crew and passengers
by

1 Answer

Answer :

d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is  sufficient for all crew and passengers
by

Related questions

One way in which passengers can be reassured during an emergency is: a. To regularly see members of the flight crew calmly moving about the cabin in a relaxed manner b. For the captain or first officer to keep a running commentary going over the PA c. For the cabin staff to ensure the passengers are aware of what is happening and that they are complying with instructions d. For the cabin staff to direct passengers’ attention to the emergency passenger brief cards and make sure that they have read them

Description : One way in which passengers can be reassured during an emergency is: a. To regularly see members of the flight crew calmly moving about the cabin in a relaxed manner b. For the ... to direct passengers' attention to the emergency passenger brief cards and make sure that they have read them

Last Answer : c. For the cabin staff to ensure the passengers are aware of what is happening and that they are complying with instructions

At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft

A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability to fly c. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Description : A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ... suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Last Answer : a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance

A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency c. Enables a landing if it is suspected that the undercarriage is not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

Description : A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a ... not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

Last Answer : b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency

When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded? a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude b. During ground pressure testing c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs d. When changing to manual operation

Description : When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded? a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude b. During ground pressure testing c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs d. When changing to manual operation

Last Answer : a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude

The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft

Description : The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft

Last Answer : b. 10,000ft

Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what and what should you do? a. Marked temperature drop; apply full power b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power c. Incipient engine failure (ignore instruments); lower the nose to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Description : Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what ... to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Last Answer : b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power

Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference? a. The Commander or the Operator b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred c. Any member of the flight crew d. Any person on board the aeroplane

Description : Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference? a. The Commander or the Operator b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred c. Any member of the flight crew d. Any person on board the aeroplane

Last Answer : a. The Commander or the Operato

The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude

Description : The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude

Last Answer : b. Variations in aeroplane loading

A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure to relieve the symptoms c. Continue the flight at a lower altitude and carry out exercises to relieve the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane, the measures that should be taken are designed to: a. Disable the device b. Find out what will trigger the device c. Prevent knowledge of the device on board getting to the passengers d. Locate and move the device to the ‘least risk’ location and apply as much padding as possible

Description : If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane, the measures that should be taken are designed to: a. Disable the device b. Find out what will trigger the device c. Prevent ... d. Locate and move the device to the least risk' location and apply as much padding as possible

Last Answer : d. Locate and move the device to the ‘least risk’ location and apply as much padding as possible

During a slow decompression, passengers will occur: a. The cabin temperature will fall as pressure reduces b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in venting c. As soon as the pressure falls, the oxygen drop-out system will operate d. No contra effects, as slow decompression has no effect on the human body

Description : During a slow decompression, passengers will occur: a. The cabin temperature will fall as pressure reduces b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in ... will operate d. No contra effects, as slow decompression has no effect on the human body

Last Answer : b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in venting

What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications b. Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude

Description : What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed ... shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude

Last Answer : c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power

If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate: a. Zero b. Climb c. Descent d. Reducing pressure

Description : If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate: a. Zero b. Climb c. Descent d. Reducing pressure

Last Answer : b. Climb

When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Description : When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. ... by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Last Answer : c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board

How do you control power in a jet engine? a. By controlling the mixture ratio b. By controlling the fuel flow c. By controlling the airflow d. By controlling the bleed valves

Description : How do you control power in a jet engine? a. By controlling the mixture ratio b. By controlling the fuel flow c. By controlling the airflow d. By controlling the bleed valves

Last Answer : b. By controlling the fuel flow

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that: a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories b. TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircrafts which carry more than 30 passengers. While TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft. c. TCAS I can be fitted aircrafts which carry transponders with Mode A only while TCAS II can be fitted to aircrafts whose transponders include either Mode C or Mode S. d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that: a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic ... C or Mode S. d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

Last Answer : a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories

What factors affect descent angle in a glide? a. Configuration and altitude b. Configuration and angle of attack c. Mass and altitude d. Mass and configuration

Description : What factors affect descent angle in a glide? a. Configuration and altitude b. Configuration and angle of attack c. Mass and altitude d. Mass and configuration

Last Answer : b. Configuration and angle of attack

The transition of altitude to flight level and vice versa is made: a. On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent c. At the transition level only d. At the transition altitude only

Description : The transition of altitude to flight level and vice versa is made: a. On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent c. At the transition level only d. At the transition altitude only

Last Answer : b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent

When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show: a. No change in altitude b. A slight climb c. A slight descent d. A slight descent at high airspeed only

Description : When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show: a. No change in altitude b. A slight climb c. A slight descent d. A slight descent at high airspeed only

Last Answer : b. A slight climb

What is the currency requirement for a pilot? a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 60 days c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days d. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days

Description : What is the currency requirement for a pilot? a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same ... 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days

Last Answer : c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days

Cabin altitude in pressured flight is: a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter c. Altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions

Description : Cabin altitude in pressured flight is: a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter c. ... equals ambient pressure d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions

Last Answer : a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter

A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability to fly c. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Description : A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability ... suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Last Answer : a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance

To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust

Description : To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust

Last Answer : b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force

A shuttle valve will: a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve

Description : A shuttle valve will: a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve

Last Answer : c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply

A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Description : A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Last Answer : c. Excess engine power

The most dangerous form of airframe icing is: a. Clear ice b. Hoar frost c. Dry ice d. Rime ice

Description : The most dangerous form of airframe icing is: a. Clear ice b. Hoar frost c. Dry ice d. Rime ice

Last Answer : a. Clear ice

How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability

If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude c. Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Description : If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater ... below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Last Answer : b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude

The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Description : The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Last Answer : b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required

A type rating is applicable to: a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training

Description : A type rating is applicable to: a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training

Last Answer : c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation

When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded? a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude b. During ground pressure testing c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs d. When changing to manual operation

Description : When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded? a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude b. During ground pressure testing c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs d. When changing to manual operation

Last Answer : a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude

What criteria determine which engine is the “critical” engine of a twin-engine aeroplane? a. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage c. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust d. The failure of which causes the least yawing moment

Description : What criteria determine which engine is the critical engine of a twin-engine aeroplane? a. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage b. The one ... the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust d. The failure of which causes the least yawing moment

Last Answer : b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage

The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft

Description : The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft

Last Answer : b. 10,000ft

What controls cabin pressurisation? a. ECS pack mass flow controller b. Outflow valve c. Engine bleed valve d. Inflow valve

Description : What controls cabin pressurisation? a. ECS pack mass flow controller b. Outflow valve c. Engine bleed valve d. Inflow valve

Last Answer : b. Outflow valve

At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft

Description : At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft

Last Answer : d. 41,000ft

At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft

Description : At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft

Last Answer : d. 41,000ft

With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions

Description : With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions

Last Answer : c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions

An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Last Answer : d. All of the above

What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible c. Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible

Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM c. A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for take-offs d. As the propeller control setting is changed by the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM

What controls cabin pressurization

Description : What controls cabin pressurization

Last Answer : B. Outflow valve

When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC b. If the flight time is less than 6 hours c. If the flight time is less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

Description : When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC ... less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

Last Answer : a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC

If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same

Description : If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same

Last Answer : a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Last Answer : c. 30 mins

A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a pilot only if he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a ... he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Last Answer : d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC b. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s proximity c. RAs must never be disregarded d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

After an act of unlawful interference a report is to be made. When and to whom? a. Within 10 days and to the Authority of the State of Registry b. Immediately and to the Authority of the State of the airspace in which the event occurred c. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of Registration d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator

Description : After an act of unlawful interference a report is to be made. When and to whom? a. Within 10 days and to the Authority of the State of Registry b. Immediately and to the Authority of ... d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator

Last Answer : d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator

The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Description : The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Last Answer : c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture