During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls

During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize:  
a. The complete delegation of all duties  
b. The importance of crew coordination  
c. The priority of departing on schedule  
d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls
by

1 Answer

Answer :

b. The importance of crew coordination
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Related questions

During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls

Description : During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls

Last Answer : b. The importance of crew coordination

During general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize the

Description : During general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize the

Last Answer : importance of crew coordination

One way in which passengers can be reassured during an emergency is: a. To regularly see members of the flight crew calmly moving about the cabin in a relaxed manner b. For the captain or first officer to keep a running commentary going over the PA c. For the cabin staff to ensure the passengers are aware of what is happening and that they are complying with instructions d. For the cabin staff to direct passengers’ attention to the emergency passenger brief cards and make sure that they have read them

Description : One way in which passengers can be reassured during an emergency is: a. To regularly see members of the flight crew calmly moving about the cabin in a relaxed manner b. For the ... to direct passengers' attention to the emergency passenger brief cards and make sure that they have read them

Last Answer : c. For the cabin staff to ensure the passengers are aware of what is happening and that they are complying with instructions

From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

Last Answer : b. Descend

Decision making in emergency situations requires primarily: a. Speed of reaction b. The distribution of tasks and crew coordination c. Strong situational awareness d. The whole crew to focus on the immediate problem

Description : Decision making in emergency situations requires primarily: a. Speed of reaction b. The distribution of tasks and crew coordination c. Strong situational awareness d. The whole crew to focus on the immediate problem

Last Answer : b. The distribution of tasks and crew coordination

What should a Captain do before making a non-urgent decision? a. Put his own view forward and then ask for the opinions of other members of the crew b. Consider all implications c. Encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion d. Monitor his motor programme (flying)

Description : What should a Captain do before making a non-urgent decision? a. Put his own view forward and then ask for the opinions of other members of the crew b. Consider all implications c. Encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion d. Monitor his motor programme (flying)

Last Answer : c. Encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion

When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Description : When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. ... by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Last Answer : c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board

Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference? a. The Commander or the Operator b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred c. Any member of the flight crew d. Any person on board the aeroplane

Description : Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference? a. The Commander or the Operator b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred c. Any member of the flight crew d. Any person on board the aeroplane

Last Answer : a. The Commander or the Operato

Which of the following is an obligation of being an ICAO contracting state? a. ICAO must be informed about all new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses b. ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention c. ICAO must approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections d. ICAO must be informed about changes to national regulations

Description : Which of the following is an obligation of being an ICAO contracting state? a. ICAO must be informed about all new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses ... of tickets on international airline connections d. ICAO must be informed about changes to national regulations

Last Answer : b. ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention

At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft

Description : At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft

Last Answer : d. 41,000ft

At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft

Description : At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft

Last Answer : d. 41,000ft

Which has priority to land? a. A hospital flight b. An emergency c. A military flight d. A VIP flight

Description : Which has priority to land? a. A hospital flight b. An emergency c. A military flight d. A VIP flight

Last Answer : b. An emergency

Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator

Description : Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator

Last Answer : b. The captain

When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance c. He/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Description : When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if ... appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Last Answer : b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance

The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Description : The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Last Answer : b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required

What are the key points of a good briefing? a. Individual, understood and simple b. Individual, clear and simple c. Individual, understood and short d. Simple, clear, understood and individual

Description : What are the key points of a good briefing? a. Individual, understood and simple b. Individual, clear and simple c. Individual, understood and short d. Simple, clear, understood and individual

Last Answer : c. Individual, understood and short

A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a pilot only if he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a ... he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Last Answer : d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You  experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action?  a. Stay level  b. Descend  c. Climb  d. Reduce speed

Last Answer : b. Descend 

Discussing private matters in the cockpit: a. Decreases the captain’s role in leadership b. Should be avoided in flight c. Can improve team spirit d. Is appropriate at any stage of the flight

Description : Discussing private matters in the cockpit: a. Decreases the captain’s role in leadership b. Should be avoided in flight c. Can improve team spirit d. Is appropriate at any stage of the flight

Last Answer : c. Can improve team spirit

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that: a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories b. TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircrafts which carry more than 30 passengers. While TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft. c. TCAS I can be fitted aircrafts which carry transponders with Mode A only while TCAS II can be fitted to aircrafts whose transponders include either Mode C or Mode S. d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that: a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic ... C or Mode S. d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

Last Answer : a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC b. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s proximity c. RAs must never be disregarded d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Description : When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Last Answer : d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional airflow to the pressurization systems c. Maintain the aeroplane altitude to prevent further damage to the airframe by over loading of the structure d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Description : In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional ... a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Last Answer : d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: a. An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information b. An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

Description : A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: a. An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information b. An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such ... An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

Last Answer : c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft

Description : The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft

Last Answer : b. 10,000ft

Communication in the cockpit is primarily used for what purpose? a. It is the main tool to ensure coordination b. It is the main tool to ensure comprehension c. It is the main tool to ensure harmony d. It is the main tool to ensure understanding

Description : Communication in the cockpit is primarily used for what purpose? a. It is the main tool to ensure coordination b. It is the main tool to ensure comprehension c. It is the main tool to ensure harmony d. It is the main tool to ensure understanding

Last Answer : a. It is the main tool to ensure coordination

Wider span of control is effective in organization where– (A) authority delegation is inadequate (B) tasks are complex (C) thorough subordinate training scheme exists (D) the leadership style is authoritarian

Description : Wider span of control is effective in organization where– (A) authority delegation is inadequate (B) tasks are complex (C) thorough subordinate training scheme exists (D) the leadership style is authoritarian

Last Answer : Answer: thorough subordinate training scheme exists

The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY

Description : The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY

Last Answer : c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20”

How much fuel can be jettisoned? a. A specific amount b. The captain decides c. All d. A specified amount must remain

Description : How much fuel can be jettisoned? a. A specific amount b. The captain decides c. All d. A specified amount must remain

Last Answer : d. A specified amount must remain

At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft

A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure? a. Take-off is not possible under these conditions b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind c. Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the ... throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind

The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft

Description : The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft

Last Answer : a. Pilot in command

What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible c. Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible

When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Description : When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Last Answer : d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have: a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently

Description : To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have: a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently

Last Answer : a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days

What controls cabin pressurisation? a. ECS pack mass flow controller b. Outflow valve c. Engine bleed valve d. Inflow valve

Description : What controls cabin pressurisation? a. ECS pack mass flow controller b. Outflow valve c. Engine bleed valve d. Inflow valve

Last Answer : b. Outflow valve

Explain Briefing the half yearly schedule maintenance of OH mains?

Description : Explain Briefing the half yearly schedule maintenance of OH mains?

Last Answer : Ans. "(a) Check all the jumper connections (b) Check any connections of the strands of the conductor (c ) Check and ensure proper earth connection (d) Check proper fixation of insulators, stay wires, guard wires, etc. (e) Check proper tensioning and connection of service wires."

What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack c. An increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Description : What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement ... increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Last Answer : b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack

An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt

Description : An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt

Last Answer : c. 99kt

To ensure some degree of longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the CG: a. Must always coincide with the AC b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point c. Must be aft of the Neutral Point d. Must not be forward of the aft CG limi

Description : To ensure some degree of longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the CG: a. Must always coincide with the AC b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point c. Must be aft of the Neutral Point d. Must not be forward of the aft CG limi

Last Answer : b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point

The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude

Description : The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude

Last Answer : b. Variations in aeroplane loading

Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight? a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal b. These forces are equal c. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal

Description : Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight? a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal b. These forces are equal ... greater than weight d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal

Last Answer : b. These forces are equal

From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be used? a. Green b. Red c. White d. All of the above

Description : From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be used? a. Green b. Red c. White d. All of the above

Last Answer : b. Red

When must a radiation indicator be carried? a. For flight above 29,000ft b. For flight above 39,000ft c. For flight above 49,000ft d. For flight above 59,000ft

Description : When must a radiation indicator be carried? a. For flight above 29,000ft b. For flight above 39,000ft c. For flight above 49,000ft d. For flight above 59,000ft

Last Answer : c. For flight above 49,000ft

After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Description : After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Last Answer : d. 60 days

A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over: a. 20,000kg b. 5,700kg c. 10,000kg d. 7,000kg

Description : A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over: a. 20,000kg b. 5,700kg c. 10,000kg d. 7,000kg

Last Answer : b. 5,700kg

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC b. If the flight time is less than 6 hours c. If the flight time is less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

Description : When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC ... less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

Last Answer : a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC