a. QNE
Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is: a. QNE b. QFF c. QFE d. QNH
Last Answer : a. QNE
Description : The Q code on which height is based on: a. QNH b. QFF c. QFE
Last Answer : c. QFE
Description : The Q code on which height is based on: a. QNH b. QFF c. QFE d. QUJ
Description : QFE is 1000 hPa with an airfield elevation of 200m AMSL. What is QNH? (use 8m per hPa) a. 975 hPa b. 1025 hPa c. 1008 hPa d. 992 hPa
Last Answer : b. 1025 hPa
Description : What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 50ft below MSL? a. QFE = QNH b. QFE < QNH c. QFE > QNH d. There is no clear relationship
Last Answer : c. QFE > QNH
Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is
Last Answer : Qff
Description : The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is: a. QDR b. QFE c. QUJ d. QTE
Last Answer : d. QTE
Description : The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is: a. QDM b. QDR c. QTE d. QNH
Last Answer : b. QDR
Description : How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature
Last Answer : a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA
Description : Given: True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600 ft; local airfield gives qnh as 1035 mb; Required terrain clearance 1500 ft; temparute ISA-15C Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature?
Last Answer : FL140
Description : Given: True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110
Last Answer : b. FL140
Description : An aircraft climbs from an airfield, elevation 1500ft, QNH 1023mb, to FL75. What height does the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1mb=30ft) a. 6600 ft b. 7800 ft c. 6300 ft d. 6000 ft
Last Answer : c. 6300 ft
Description : The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: a. At flight level b. At height of observatory c. At a determined density altitude d. Reduced to sea level
Last Answer : d. Reduced to sea level
Description : The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be: a. TOWER b. CLEARANCE c. GROUND d. APRON
Last Answer : c. GROUND
Description : What Positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
Last Answer : OSITIONS WITH THE SAME AIR PRESSURE AT A GIVEN LEVEL
Description : If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should:
Last Answer : try a another appropriate frequency
Description : If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should: a. Try another appropriate frequency b. Start transmitting blind c. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome d. Transmit words twice
Last Answer : a. Try another appropriate frequency
Description : When reporting a frequency the use of the word “DECIMAL” can be omitted: a. When there is no likelihood of confusion b. After the initial call c. Never d. By the ground station only
Last Answer : c. Never
Description : An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign, ... , callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain's number, rank and name
Last Answer : a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading
Description : The callsign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be: a. CLEARANCE b. GROUND c. DELIVERY d. PRESTO
Last Answer : c. DELIVERY
Description : In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway? a. GAFOR b. TAF c. METAR d. SIGMET
Last Answer : c. METAR
Description : Where are icing conditions on route specified? a. TAF and METAR b. METAR and SIGMET c. SWC (sig. weather chart) and SIGMET d. SPECI and TREND
Last Answer : c. SWC (sig. weather chart) and SIGMET
Description : A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday
Last Answer : c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing
Description : Birmingham EGBB/BHX SA0850 280850 18014KT 9999 SCT 024 BKN030 BKN045 12/08 Q1011= FC0600 280600Z 280816 190015G27KT 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 0812 5000 - DZ BKN012 BECMG 1214 19022G37= FT0400 280434Z 281212 ... information for Birmingham, above. What is the total time for which the weather is forcast?
Last Answer : 28 hours
Description : BIRMINGHAM EGBB/BHX SA0850 280850 18014kt 9999 SCT024 BKN030 BKN045 12/08 Q1011 = FC0600 280600Z 280816 190015G27kt 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 0812 5000 - DZ BKN012 BECMG 1214 19022G37 = FT0400 280434Z 281212 19022G37 9999 ... weather is forecast? a. 9 hours b. 18 hours c. 24 hours d. 28 hours
Last Answer : d. 28 hours
Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation
Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative
Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the ... throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible
Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind
Description : What are the VMC limits for Class B airspace? a. 8km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface b. 8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud c. 5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud d. The same as Class D
Last Answer : d. The same as Class D
Description : The greater the pressure gradient the: a. Closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures b. Further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
Last Answer : c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
Description : Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 30,065 ft pressure level (FL 300)? a. 200 hPa b. 700 hPa c. 500 hPa d. 300 hPa
Last Answer : d. 300 hPa
Description : You are cruising at FL 200, OAT is -40°C, sea level pressure is 1033 hPa. Calculate the true altitude. a. 20,660 ft b. 21,740 ft c. 18,260 ft d. 19, 340 ft
Last Answer : d. 19, 340 ft
Description : An inversion is: a. A decrease of pressure with height b. A decrease of temperature with height c. An increase of temperature with height d. An increase of pressure with height
Last Answer : c. An increase of temperature with height
Description : You are flying at FL170. The pressure level which is closest to you is the: a. 300mb b. 700mb c. 500mb d. 850mb
Last Answer : c. 500mb
Description : Generally, as altitude increases: a. Temperature decreases and density increases b. Temperature, pressure and density decreases c. Temperature and pressure increase and density decreases d. Temperature decreases and pressure and density increase
Last Answer : b. Temperature, pressure and density decreases
Description : What causes wind? a. Difference in pressure b. Rotation of the earth c. Frontal systems d. Difference in temperature
Last Answer : a. Difference in pressure
Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... relieve the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Description : The effects of carbon monoxide: a. Increases with altitude b. Decreases with altitude c. Increases with increase of density d. Decreases with pressure loss
Last Answer : a. Increases with altitude
Description : For take-off performance calculations, what is taken into account? a. OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight b. Standard temperature, altitude, wind, weight c. Standard altitude, standard temperature, wind, weight d. Standard temperature, pressure altitude, wind, weight
Last Answer : a. OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight
Description : If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate
Last Answer : B. Climb
Description : The most likely cause of brake fade is: a. Oil or grease on the brake drums b. Worn stators c. The pilot reducing the brake pressure d. The brake pads overheating
Last Answer : d. The brake pads overheating
Description : The purpose of an accumulator is to: a. Relieve excess pressure b. Store fluid under pressure c. Store compressed gas for tyre inflation d. Remove air from the system
Last Answer : b. Store fluid under pressure
Description : If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate: a. Zero b. Climb c. Descent d. Reducing pressure
Last Answer : b. Climb
Description : A pressure head is subject to the following errors: a. Position, manoeuvre induced, temperature b. Position, manoeuvre induced c. Position, manoeuvre induced, density d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument
Last Answer : d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument
Description : A shuttle valve will: a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve
Last Answer : c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply
Description : When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down
Last Answer : d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down