Clearance limit is defined as:

1 Answer

Answer :

the point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance

Related questions

Description : Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance

Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative

Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative

Description : Given: True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600 ft; local airfield gives qnh as 1035 mb; Required terrain clearance 1500 ft; temparute ISA-15C Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature?

Last Answer : FL140

Description : Given: True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Last Answer : b. FL140

Description : The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be: a. TOWER b. CLEARANCE c. GROUND d. APRON

Last Answer : c. GROUND

Description : The term “DISREGARD” means: a. Ignore b. Cancel the last clearance c. You have not been cleared d. Pay no attention to what I say

Last Answer : a. Ignore

Description : The term “RECLEARED” means that: a. Your last clearance is confirmed b. Your last clearance has been cancelled c. You may proceed as you please d. A change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance

Last Answer : d. A change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance

Description : The callsign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be: a. CLEARANCE b. GROUND c. DELIVERY d. PRESTO

Last Answer : c. DELIVERY

Description : The MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome? a. 20nm b. 30nm c. 25nm d. 15nm

Last Answer : c. 25nm

Description : f an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance

Description : Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless of ... A, if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Last Answer : d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Description : An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Last Answer : b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable

Description : When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if ... appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Last Answer : b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance

Description : Maximum Differential pressure: a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure b. Is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum ... time limit d. Is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry

Last Answer : a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure

Description : A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: a. An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information b. An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations c. An ... by an ILS or a PAR d. An approach using bearing, elevation, and, optionally, distance information

Last Answer : c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

Description : Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance

Description : You're 36,000 ft. above earth and a hole erupts in the fuselage of the aircraft you are in. What are your thoughts and what would you do?

Last Answer : I am not very religious but I think I would pray.

Description : When did FEDEX add the B777 to their fleet?

Last Answer : UScitizen Try this ==> http://mediacenter.fedex.designcdt.com/taxonomy/term/753 Last fall.

Description : Aircraft Carrier

Last Answer : An aircraft carrier gets about 6 inches per gallon of fuel.

Description : What Positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?

Last Answer : OSITIONS WITH THE SAME AIR PRESSURE AT A GIVEN LEVEL

Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is

Last Answer : Qff

Description :  If you are flying at FL300 in an airmass that is 15*C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the  outside temperature likely to be?

Last Answer : 30*C

Description : How would you characterize an air temperature of -55*C at the 200HPA level over western Europe?

Last Answer : WITH IN + 5*C OF ISA

Description : What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?

Last Answer : TROPOPAUSE

Description : The greater the pressure gradient the:  a. Closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures  b. Further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature  c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind

Last Answer : c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind

Description : In an area of converging air  a. Clouds cannot be formed  b. Clouds can be formed  c. Convective clouds can be dissolved  d. Stratified clouds can be dissolved

Last Answer : b. Clouds can be formed

Description : In which zone of a jetstream is the strongest CAT to be expected?  a. The warm air side of the core  b. Exactly in the center of the core  c. About 12,000ft above the core  d. The cold air side of the core

Last Answer : d. The cold air side of the core

Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You  experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action?  a. Stay level  b. Descend  c. Climb  d. Reduce speed

Last Answer : b. Descend 

Description : Refer to the following TAF for Zurich   LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 –DZ  BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=  The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:  a. 6km  b. 6nm  c. 4km  d. 10km

Last Answer : a. 6km

Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?   00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =  a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility  improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

Last Answer : d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility  improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

Description : The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means:  a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers  b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers  c. Becoming from 1100UTC rain showers  d. Becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers

Last Answer : b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers

Description : What is the coldest time of the day?  a. 1hr before sunrise  b. 1/2 hr before sunrise  c. At exact moment of sunrise  d. 1/2 hour after sunrise

Last Answer : d. 1/2 hour after sunrise

Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is:  a. QNE  b. QFF  c. QFE  d. QNH

Last Answer : a. QNE

Description : With regard to RVR and Met vis:  a. Met vis is usually less than RVR  b. Met vis is usually greater than RVR  c. RVR is usually less than met vis  d. Met vis and RVR are usually the same

Last Answer : a. Met vis is usually less than RVR

Description : Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 30,065 ft pressure level (FL 300)?  a. 200 hPa  b. 700 hPa  c. 500 hPa  d. 300 hPa

Last Answer : d. 300 hPa

Description : In what frequency band is the ATIS normally broadcasted?  a. LF  b. HF  c. ADF  d. VHF

Last Answer : d. VHF

Description : You are cruising at FL 200, OAT is -40°C, sea level pressure is 1033 hPa. Calculate the true  altitude.  a. 20,660 ft  b. 21,740 ft  c. 18,260 ft  d. 19, 340 ft

Last Answer : d. 19, 340 ft

Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an  inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the  ... throttle during the passage through the inversion  d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind

Description : ATC will only report wind as gusting if:  a. Gust speed exceeds mean speed by >15kts  b. Gusts to over 25kts  c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts  d. Gusts to under 25kts

Last Answer : c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts 

Description : Two aircrafts, one with a sharp wing profile (S) and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying  through the same cloud with the same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small  ... aircrafts accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets  d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

Last Answer : d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor  land?  a. He ascends to the cold air layer above  b. He continues to fly at the same altitude  c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability  d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability 

Description : The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure:  a. At flight level  b. At height of observatory  c. At a determined density altitude  d. Reduced to sea level

Last Answer : d. Reduced to sea level

Description : An inversion is:  a. A decrease of pressure with height  b. A decrease of temperature with height  c. An increase of temperature with height  d. An increase of pressure with height

Last Answer : c. An increase of temperature with height

Description : What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?  a. Change of flight level  b. Change of course  c. Increase of speed  d. Decrease of speed

Last Answer : a. Change of flight level

Description : QFE is 1000 hPa with an airfield elevation of 200m AMSL. What is QNH? (use 8m per hPa)  a. 975 hPa  b. 1025 hPa  c. 1008 hPa  d. 992 hPa

Last Answer : b. 1025 hPa

Description : VOLMETs are updated  a. Every hour  b. 4 times a day  c. 2 times a day  d. Every half hour

Last Answer : d. Every half hour

Description : When a TREND is included at the end of a METAR, the trend is a forecast valid for:  a. 1 hour after the time of observation  b. 2 hours after the time of observation  c. 2 hours after it was issued  d. 1 hour after it was issued

Last Answer : b. 2 hours after the time of observation

Description : TAFs are usually valid for:  a. For the period indicated in the TAF itself  b. For 18 hours  c. For 24 hours  d. For 8 hours

Last Answer : a. For the period indicated in the TAF itself