Given: DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel Which of the following is correct? a. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,193kg b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg

Given:
 DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg
 Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel
Which of the following is correct?
a. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,193kg
b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg
c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg
d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg
by

1 Answer

Answer :

b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg
by

Related questions

DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel Which of the following is correct? a. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,193kg b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg

Description : DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel Which of the following is correct? a. Estimated landing mass at destination ... 43,295kg c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg

Last Answer : b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: LRC, at FL330 outside air temperature -30C. Find estimated trip fuel and time. a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V ... b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Last Answer : a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt

Last Answer : c. 25,000ft & 435kt

What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Description : What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Last Answer : a. From take-off to overhead destination

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg Headwind component 25kt The alternate fuel required is: a. 2550kg b. 2800kg c. 2900kg d. 2650kg

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg Headwind component 25kt The alternate fuel required is: a. 2550kg b. 2800kg c. 2900kg d. 2650kg

Last Answer : b. 2800kg

Define the useful load: a. traffic load plus dry operating mass b. traffic load plus usable fuel mass c. dry operating mass plus usable fuel load d. that part of the traffic load which generates revenue

Description : Define the useful load: a. traffic load plus dry operating mass b. traffic load plus usable fuel mass c. dry operating mass plus usable fuel load d. that part of the traffic load which generates revenue

Last Answer : a. traffic load plus dry operating mass

At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a. 33.0 USG/Hr b. 37.9 USG/Hr c. 30.3 USG/Hr d. 21.3 USG/Hr

Description : At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a. 33.0 USG/Hr b. 37.9 USG/Hr c. 30.3 USG/Hr d. 21.3 USG/Hr

Last Answer : c. 30.3 USG/Hr

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights c. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Description : Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. ... off four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Last Answer : b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Last Answer : c. 30 mins

A hand pump is usually fitted: a. For ground servicing purposes b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air d. Retracting the gear after take-off

Description : A hand pump is usually fitted: a. For ground servicing purposes b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air d. Retracting the gear after take-off

Last Answer : a. For ground servicing purposes

The loading limitations shall include: a. All limiting mass and centre of gravity b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing c. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position and floor loading d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centre of gravity

Description : The loading limitations shall include: a. All limiting mass and centre of gravity b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing c. All limiting mass, ... of gravity position and floor loading d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centre of gravity

Last Answer : b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing

At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of useable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12 USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable?

Description : At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of useable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12 USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable?

Last Answer : 30.3 USG/HR

When a maps app/site or GPS gives an estimated time of arrival for a destination, in what way do they calculate for traffic lights?

Description : When a maps app/site or GPS gives an estimated time of arrival for a destination, in what way do they calculate for traffic lights?

Last Answer : Lots of ways .

A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Description : A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Last Answer : d. 2%

To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during the landing the pilot of a modern airliner should:

Description : To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during the landing the pilot of a modern airliner should:

Last Answer : make a “positive” landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible.

When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

Last Answer : c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP

When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to: a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO b. ICAO only c. Each State whose citizens were known to be on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Description : When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, ... be on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Last Answer : a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO

An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Description : An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Last Answer : b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable

What does three green lights represents when the landing gear is selected down

Description : What does three green lights represents when the landing gear is selected down

Last Answer : B. The gear is down and locked.

What do three green lights represent when the landing gear is selected down? a. The gear is down b. The gear is down and locked c. The gear and doors are down and locked d. The gear is travelling between up and down

Description : What do three green lights represent when the landing gear is selected down? a. The gear is down b. The gear is down and locked c. The gear and doors are down and locked d. The gear is travelling between up and down

Last Answer : b. The gear is down and locked

What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height? a. Fail soft b. Fail passive c. Fail operational or fail active d. Land 2 system

Description : What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height? a. Fail soft b. Fail passive c. Fail operational or fail active d. Land 2 system

Last Answer : c. Fail operational or fail active

At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50'. What number is missing? -Riddles

Description : 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50'. What number is missing? -Riddles

Last Answer : 22

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt

Last Answer : c. 25,000ft & 435kt

What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled airspace unless otherwise directed? a. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the heading b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the estimated position of the aircraft c. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track d. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track

Description : What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled airspace unless otherwise directed? a. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the ... planned track d. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track

Last Answer : b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the estimated position of the aircraft

If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the ICAO flight plan, she must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a specified time of her planned ETA at destination. The time is:

Description : If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the ICAO flight plan, she must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a specified time of her planned ETA at destination. The time is:

Last Answer : 30 mins

An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign, position, route, destination, endurance c. Name of station addressed, callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain’s number, rank and name

Description : An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign, ... , callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain's number, rank and name

Last Answer : a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading

Which of the following couldnot be an Ethernet unicast destination? A) 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00 B) 44:AA:C1:23:45:32 C) 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4 D) 48:32:21:21:4D:34

Description : Which of the following couldnot be an Ethernet unicast destination? A) 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00 B) 44:AA:C1:23:45:32 C) 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4 D) 48:32:21:21:4D:34

Last Answer : 43:7B:6C:DE:10:0

What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Description : What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Last Answer : a. From take-off to overhead destination

When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Description : When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Last Answer : d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

What are the commonest congenitally missing teeth:VERY CONTROVERSIAL BUT SEE THE SAMPLE QUESTIONS FROM ADC IT’S THE ANSWER A. 12, 22 B. 35, 45 ACC TO CAMERON C. 15, 25 D. 33, 43

Description : What are the commonest congenitally missing teeth:VERY CONTROVERSIAL BUT SEE THE SAMPLE QUESTIONS FROM ADC IT’S THE ANSWER A. 12, 22 B. 35, 45 ACC TO CAMERON C. 15, 25 D. 33, 43

Last Answer : A. 12, 22

f an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Description : f an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance

When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall: a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license c. Be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

Description : When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall: a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of ... Be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

Last Answer : b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license

How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Description : How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Last Answer : a. 3.00 hrs

The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Description : The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Last Answer : c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency

What is the approximate percentage of earth coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero degree elevation? A. 33.3% B. 45.2% C. 42.5% D. 30.5%

Description : What is the approximate percentage of earth coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero degree elevation? A. 33.3% B. 45.2% C. 42.5% D. 30.5%

Last Answer : C. 42.5%

A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday

Description : A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday

Last Answer : c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing

Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft? a. The State b. The Operator c. The Commander d. The Owner

Description : Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft? a. The State b. The Operator c. The Commander d. The Owner

Last Answer : c. The Commander

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg Headwind component 25kt The alternate fuel required is: a. 2550kg b. 2800kg c. 2900kg d. 2650kg

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg Headwind component 25kt The alternate fuel required is: a. 2550kg b. 2800kg c. 2900kg d. 2650kg

Last Answer : b. 2800kg

The salaries and allowances of the Council of Ministers of the State Government are paid from the : (1) Reserve Bank of India (2) Treasury of the State Government (3) Contingency Fund of the State (4) Consolidated Fund of the State

Description : The salaries and allowances of the Council of Ministers of the State Government are paid from the : (1) Reserve Bank of India (2) Treasury of the State Government (3) Contingency Fund of the State (4) Consolidated Fund of the State

Last Answer : (4) Consolidated Fund of the State Explanation: Members of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council of a State shall be entitled to receive such salaries and allowances as may ... the Legislative Assembly of the corresponding province. The salary is paid from state consolidated fund.

The salaries and emoluments of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged on (1) The Reserve Bank of India (2) The Contingency Fund of India (3) The Consolidated Fund of India (4) The Finance Commission

Description : The salaries and emoluments of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged on (1) The Reserve Bank of India (2) The Contingency Fund of India (3) The Consolidated Fund of India (4) The Finance Commission

Last Answer : (3) The Consolidated Fund of India Explanation: Article 101 deals with remuneration of Judges of the Supreme Court. It states that the salaries payable to the Judges of the Supreme Court under this ... and pension payable to or in respect of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India; etc.

A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000. What term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000? A. Cost Variance B. Management Overhead C. Management Contingency Reserve D. Schedule Variance

Description : A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000. What term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000? A. Cost Variance B. Management Overhead C. Management Contingency Reserve D. Schedule Variance

Last Answer : C. Management Contingency Reserve

According to the PMBOK guide which of the following sta. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget. b. Reserves should not be included in the project budget. c. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you try to determine your project budget. d. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical. e. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.atements is right in terms of using reserve analysis to determine a project budget ?

Description : According to the PMBOK guide which of the following statements is right in terms  of using reserve analysis to determine a project budget ? a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves ... not practical. e. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.

Last Answer : . Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and  project costs, which are part of your project budget.

According to the PMBOK guide, which of the following statements is right in terms of using reserve analysis to determine a project budget? Select one: A. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget. B. Reserves should not be included in the project budget. C. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you try to determine your project budget. D. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical. E. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.

Description : According to the PMBOK guide, which of the following statements is  right in terms of using reserve analysis to determine a project budget? Select one: A. Reserve analysis always plans ... not practical. E. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.

Last Answer : A. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and  project costs, which are part of your project budget.

A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000. What term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000? A. Cost Variance B. Management Overhead C. Management Contingency Reserve D. Schedule Variance

Description : A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000. What term  can BEST describe the difference of $5,000? A. Cost Variance B. Management Overhead C. Management Contingency Reserve D. Schedule Variance

Last Answer : C. Management Contingency Reserve

How is fuel consumption affected by the C of G position, in terms of ANM/kg?

Description : How is fuel consumption affected by the C of G position, in terms of ANM/kg?

Last Answer : decreases with a forward C of G

A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time and distance to PSR is: a. 1hr 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Description : A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time ... 1hr 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Last Answer : d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

How is fuel consumption affect by the C of G position, in terms of ANM/kg? a. Increases with a forward C of G b. Decreases with an aft C of G c. Decreases with a forward C of G d. Fuel consumption is not affected by the C of G position

Description : How is fuel consumption affect by the C of G position, in terms of ANM/kg? a. Increases with a forward C of G b. Decreases with an aft C of G c. Decreases with a forward C of G d. Fuel consumption is not affected by the C of G position

Last Answer : c. Decreases with a forward C of G

Maximum endurance: a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight c. Can be achieved in a steady climb d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling

Description : Maximum endurance: a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight c. Can be achieved in a steady climb d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling

Last Answer : a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption

Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel

Description : Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel

Last Answer : c. EAT or ETA