The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander’s decision. a. True b. False

The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander’s decision.  
a. True  
b. False
by

1 Answer

Answer :

b. False
by

Related questions

The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander’s decision. a. True b. False

Description : The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander’s decision. a. True b. False

Last Answer : b. False

The co pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the commanders decision

Description : The co pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the commanders decision

Last Answer : False

Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator

Description : Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator

Last Answer : b. The captain

To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have: a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently

Description : To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have: a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently

Last Answer : a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

Description : t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

Last Answer : a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster

Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM c. A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for take-offs d. As the propeller control setting is changed by the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

Description : By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

Last Answer : c. Lift, airspeed and drag

The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Description : The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Last Answer : b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required

In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional airflow to the pressurization systems c. Maintain the aeroplane altitude to prevent further damage to the airframe by over loading of the structure d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Description : In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional ... a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Last Answer : d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Description : When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Last Answer : d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

What is the currency requirement for a pilot? a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 60 days c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days d. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days

Description : What is the currency requirement for a pilot? a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same ... 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days

Last Answer : c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC b. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s proximity c. RAs must never be disregarded d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are: a. 285, TO b. 105, TO c. 285, FROM d. 105, FROM

Description : An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are: a. 285, TO b. 105, TO c. 285, FROM d. 105, FROM

Last Answer : a. 285, TO

How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability

A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to alter the apparent motion of any distant object c. Maximizing the time spent looking in each sector to allow the maximum chance of detecting movement d. Maintaining as far as possible a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Description : A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to ... a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Last Answer : a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible

A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are symptoms of: a. The Occulogyral Effect b. Flicker-vertigo c. Pilot’s Vertigo d. Nystagmus

Description : A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are symptoms of: a. The Occulogyral Effect b. Flicker-vertigo c. Pilot’s Vertigo d. Nystagmus

Last Answer : c. Pilot’s Vertigo

What are the personality traits of a good pilot? a. Reliable and stable b. Stable and extraverted c. Reliable and extraverted d. Reliable, calm and extraverted

Description : What are the personality traits of a good pilot? a. Reliable and stable b. Stable and extraverted c. Reliable and extraverted d. Reliable, calm and extraverted

Last Answer : b. Stable and extraverted

What should the pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC? a. Vision b. Turning head to recover from disorientation c. Sense of balance d. Instruments

Description : What should the pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC? a. Vision b. Turning head to recover from disorientation c. Sense of balance d. Instruments

Last Answer : d. Instruments

A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a pilot only if he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a ... he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Last Answer : d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure to relieve the symptoms c. Continue the flight at a lower altitude and carry out exercises to relieve the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & 3 only are correct b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct

Description : Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & ... 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct

Last Answer : b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct

A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday

Description : A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday

Last Answer : c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing

With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions

Description : With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions

Last Answer : c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions

What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed c. 12 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

Description : What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of ... that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

Last Answer : d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

Last Answer : c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP

If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Description : If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Last Answer : b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission

A type rating is applicable to: a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training

Description : A type rating is applicable to: a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training

Last Answer : c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation

When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Description : When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Last Answer : d. Read back mode and code

The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft

Description : The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft

Last Answer : a. Pilot in command

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC

An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Last Answer : d. All of the above

If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind c. Ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

The most likely cause of brake fade is: a. Oil or grease on the brake drums b. Worn stators c. The pilot reducing the brake pressure d. The brake pads overheating

Description : The most likely cause of brake fade is: a. Oil or grease on the brake drums b. Worn stators c. The pilot reducing the brake pressure d. The brake pads overheating

Last Answer : d. The brake pads overheating

The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Description : The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Last Answer : c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture

If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Description : If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The ... temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Last Answer : d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

When smoke appears in the cockpit, after donning the oxygen mask the pilot should select: a. Normal b. 100% c. Diluter d. Emergency

Description : When smoke appears in the cockpit, after donning the oxygen mask the pilot should select: a. Normal b. 100% c. Diluter d. Emergency

Last Answer : d. Emergency

According to this lesson, what term is the way for commanders to adhere to LoW by weighing risk of collateral damage against military necessity and proportionality within the framework of the military decision-making process?

Description : According to this lesson, what term is the way for commanders to adhere to LoW by weighing risk of collateral damage against military necessity and proportionality within the framework of the military decision-making process?

Last Answer : Collateral Damage Estimation Methodology (CDM)

Decision making in emergency situations requires primarily: a. Speed of reaction b. The distribution of tasks and crew coordination c. Strong situational awareness d. The whole crew to focus on the immediate problem

Description : Decision making in emergency situations requires primarily: a. Speed of reaction b. The distribution of tasks and crew coordination c. Strong situational awareness d. The whole crew to focus on the immediate problem

Last Answer : b. The distribution of tasks and crew coordination

What should a Captain do before making a non-urgent decision? a. Put his own view forward and then ask for the opinions of other members of the crew b. Consider all implications c. Encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion d. Monitor his motor programme (flying)

Description : What should a Captain do before making a non-urgent decision? a. Put his own view forward and then ask for the opinions of other members of the crew b. Consider all implications c. Encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion d. Monitor his motor programme (flying)

Last Answer : c. Encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion

What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF

Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF

Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach

In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services? a. ATC b. The Commander c. The local constabulary d. The Operations Dispatcher

Description : In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services? a. ATC b. The Commander c. The local constabulary d. The Operations Dispatcher

Last Answer : a. ATC

Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference? a. The Commander or the Operator b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred c. Any member of the flight crew d. Any person on board the aeroplane

Description : Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference? a. The Commander or the Operator b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred c. Any member of the flight crew d. Any person on board the aeroplane

Last Answer : a. The Commander or the Operato

An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation to the required track? a. 6nm right of track b. 3nm right of track c. 6nm left of track d. 3nm left of track

Description : An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation ... right of track b. 3nm right of track c. 6nm left of track d. 3nm left of track

Last Answer : c. 6nm left of track

The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that braking action: a. Poor b. Medium to poor c. Medium d. Slippery

Description : The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that braking action: a. Poor b. Medium to poor c. Medium d. Slippery

Last Answer : a. Poor

The phases of a project life cycle are: a. starting, planning, control and closing. b. concept, definition, development, handover and closure. c. initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations. d. concept, definition, implementation and operations.

Description : The phases of a project life cycle are: a. starting, planning, control and closing. b. concept, definition, development, handover and closure. c. initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations. d. concept, definition, implementation and operations.

Last Answer : b. concept, definition, development, handover and closure.

The phases of a project life cycle are: a. starting, planning, control and closing. b. concept, definition, development, handover and closure. c. initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations. d. concept, definition, implementation and operations.

Description : The phases of a project life cycle are:  a. starting, planning, control and closing.  b. concept, definition, development, handover and closure.  c. initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations.  d. concept, definition, implementation and operations.

Last Answer : b. concept, definition, development, handover and closure.

Which of the following is not a part of energy audit as per the Energy Conservation Act, 2001? a) monitoring and analysis of energy use b) verification of energy use c) submission of technical report with recommendations d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by review

Description : Which of the following is not a part of energy audit as per the Energy Conservation Act, 2001? a) monitoring and analysis of energy use b) verification of energy use c) submission of technical report with recommendations d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by review

Last Answer : d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by review

The first phase of IWM as per Sheley a). Integrated use of different methods b). Planning and implementation c). Inventorization d). Monitoring and evaluation

Description : The first phase of IWM as per Sheley a). Integrated use of different methods b). Planning and implementation c). Inventorization d). Monitoring and evaluation

Last Answer : c). Inventorization