Description : What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 50ft below MSL? a. QFE = QNH b. QFE < QNH c. QFE > QNH d. There is no clear relationship
Last Answer : c. QFE > QNH
Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is: a. QNE b. QFF c. QFE d. QNH
Last Answer : a. QNE
Description : QFE is 1000 hPa with an airfield elevation of 200m AMSL. What is QNH? (use 8m per hPa) a. 975 hPa b. 1025 hPa c. 1008 hPa d. 992 hPa
Last Answer : b. 1025 hPa
Description : The Q code on which height is based on: a. QNH b. QFF c. QFE
Last Answer : c. QFE
Description : How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature
Last Answer : a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA
Description : Cabin altitude in pressured flight is: a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter c. ... pressure equals ambient pressure d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions
Last Answer : a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height
Description : The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is: a. QDR b. QFE c. QUJ d. QTE
Last Answer : d. QTE
Description : The Q code on which height is based on: a. QNH b. QFF c. QFE d. QUJ
Description : Given: True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600 ft; local airfield gives qnh as 1035 mb; Required terrain clearance 1500 ft; temparute ISA-15C Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature?
Last Answer : FL140
Description : Given: True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110
Last Answer : b. FL140
Description : An aircraft climbs from an airfield, elevation 1500ft, QNH 1023mb, to FL75. What height does the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1mb=30ft) a. 6600 ft b. 7800 ft c. 6300 ft d. 6000 ft
Last Answer : c. 6300 ft
Description : The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is: a. QDM b. QDR c. QTE d. QNH
Last Answer : b. QDR
Description : Which of the following statement is an interpretation of the SIGMET? LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / ... towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL260
Last Answer : c. Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL260 and FL380
Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the ... throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible
Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind
Description : How will an oncoming aircraft on a line of constant bearing appear visually? a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision b ... relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes well clear
Last Answer : a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision
Description : How will an oncoming aircraft on a line of constant bearingappear visually? a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision b. ... movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes well clear
Description : The most dangerous form of airframe icing is: a. Clear ice b. Hoar frost c. Dry ice d. Rime ice
Last Answer : a. Clear ic
Description : What are the key points of a good briefing? a. Individual, understood and simple b. Individual, clear and simple c. Individual, understood and short d. Simple, clear, understood and individual
Last Answer : c. Individual, understood and short
Description : . The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY
Last Answer : c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20
Description : You have been intercepted in the airspace of a foreign contracting state. What is the signal for ‘clear to proceed’ from the intercepting aircraft? a. Rocking wings b. Flashing lights c. Cut across track d. Breaking turn up and left
Last Answer : d. Breaking turn up and left
Description : A marshaller crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outward and then moves the arms outwards. What does the signal indicate? a. Clear to move forward b. Brakes off c. Remove chocks d. Clear to close all engines
Last Answer : c. Remove chocks
Description : What are the VMC limits for Class B airspace? a. 8km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface b. 8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud c. 5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud d. The same as Class D
Last Answer : d. The same as Class D
Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below
Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability
Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP
Last Answer : c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP
Description : Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle
Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance
Description : What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR flights flying in the same direction below FL 290? a. 500ft b. 1000ft c. 2000ft d. 4000ft
Last Answer : c. 2000ft
Description : The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is: a. 500 feet (150m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300m) d. 2000 feet (600m)
Last Answer : c. 1000 feet (300m)
Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above
Last Answer : d. All of the above
Description : What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height? a. Fail soft b. Fail passive c. Fail operational or fail active d. Land 2 system
Last Answer : c. Fail operational or fail active
Description : You are flying at a constant FL 290 and a constant mach number. The total temperature increases by 5°. The CAS will: a. Remain approximately constant b. Increase by 10 kts c. Decrease by 10 kts d. Will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA
Last Answer : a. Remain approximately constant
Description : With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected ‘ON’: a. Whenever the igniters are on b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture c. Whenever the TOAT is +10°C or below and it is raining d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on
Last Answer : b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture
Description : When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded? a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude b. During ground pressure testing c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs d. When changing to manual operation
Last Answer : a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude
Description : I have a 50ft tall 38 yr old pine tree that needs help, it seems like it's dying
Last Answer : Have you sprayed it with Sevin...............follow the container directions.........wear long old clothes, goggles, mask & gloves.............you might have bore bugs..........keep children & pets away until it dries. call your forrestor, I hate to hear this tree is in danger.
Description : Working from the whole to the part is followed as the fundamental principle of surveying so as to : 1. Distribute errors 2. Improve ease of working 3. Prevent accumulation of errors 4. Compensate error in a way 5. Refer to common datum ... (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 5 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 5
Last Answer : (c) 3 and 4
Description : The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is: a. The beacon is saturated b. The aircraft is beyond ... is beyond line of sight range d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response
Last Answer : c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range
Description : Cabin altitude in pressured flight is: a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter c. ... equals ambient pressure d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions
Last Answer : a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter
Description : When reporting a frequency the use of the word “DECIMAL” can be omitted: a. When there is no likelihood of confusion b. After the initial call c. Never d. By the ground station only
Last Answer : c. Never
Description : The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that: a. There is concern for the safety of the aircraft or a person on board or other vehicle but there is no need for immediate assistance ... danger and requires immediate assistance c. The aircraft has crashed d. The aircraft is being hijacked
Last Answer : b. The aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance
Description : The term “DISREGARD” means: a. Ignore b. Cancel the last clearance c. You have not been cleared d. Pay no attention to what I say
Last Answer : a. Ignore
Description : The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: a. Respond in alphabetic order b. Respond in numerical order c. Give no response d. Request a repeat of the message
Last Answer : c. Give no response
Description : no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an aerodrome, what should be entered in Box 16 of the Flight Plan? a. ZZZZ b. NNNN c. A/N d. A/D XXX
Last Answer : a. ZZZZ
Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF
Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach
Description : What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c. ... need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required
Last Answer : b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not
Description : When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show: a. No change in altitude b. A slight climb c. A slight descent d. A slight descent at high airspeed only
Last Answer : b. A slight climb
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Description : Does Philadelphia airport have clear?
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Description : Does portland airport have clear?
Last Answer : By transforming your biometrics - like your eyes and face - into a single touchless ID, you can rely on CLEAR for a faster, safer experience, every time. CLEAR keeps you moving, without contact or crowds. Find CLEAR in 65+ airports, sports venues. cutt.ly/TjxIwwY