Description : What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 50ft below MSL? a. QFE = QNH b. QFE < QNH c. QFE > QNH d. There is no clear relationship
Last Answer : c. QFE > QNH
Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is: a. QNE b. QFF c. QFE d. QNH
Last Answer : a. QNE
Description : QFE is 1000 hPa with an airfield elevation of 200m AMSL. What is QNH? (use 8m per hPa) a. 975 hPa b. 1025 hPa c. 1008 hPa d. 992 hPa
Last Answer : b. 1025 hPa
Description : The Q code on which height is based on: a. QNH b. QFF c. QFE d. QUJ
Last Answer : c. QFE
Description : How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature
Last Answer : a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA
Description : The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is: a. The beacon is saturated b. The aircraft is beyond ... is beyond line of sight range d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response
Last Answer : c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range
Description : Cabin altitude in pressured flight is: a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter c. ... equals ambient pressure d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions
Last Answer : a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter
Description : The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is: a. QDR b. QFE c. QUJ d. QTE
Last Answer : d. QTE
Description : The Q code on which height is based on: a. QNH b. QFF c. QFE
Description : True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110
Last Answer : b. FL140
Description : An aircraft climbs from an airfield, elevation 1500ft, QNH 1023mb, to FL75. What height does the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1mb=30ft) a. 6600 ft b. 7800 ft c. 6300 ft d. 6000 ft
Last Answer : c. 6300 ft
Description : The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is: a. QDM b. QDR c. QTE d. QNH
Last Answer : b. QDR
Description : Which of the following statement is an interpretation of the SIGMET? LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / ... towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL260
Last Answer : c. Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL260 and FL380
Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the ... throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible
Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind
Description : How will an oncoming aircraft on a line of constant bearing appear visually? a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision ... relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes well clear
Last Answer : a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision
Description : Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what ... to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out
Last Answer : b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power
Description : The most dangerous form of airframe icing is: a. Clear ice b. Hoar frost c. Dry ice d. Rime ice
Last Answer : a. Clear ice
Description : What are the key points of a good briefing? a. Individual, understood and simple b. Individual, clear and simple c. Individual, understood and short d. Simple, clear, understood and individual
Last Answer : c. Individual, understood and short
Description : The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY
Last Answer : c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20”
Description : You have been intercepted in the airspace of a foreign contracting state. What is the signal for ‘clear to proceed’ from the intercepting aircraft? a. Rocking wings b. Flashing lights c. Cut across track d. Breaking turn up and left
Last Answer : d. Breaking turn up and left
Description : A marshaller crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outward and then moves the arms outwards. What does the signal indicate? a. Clear to move forward b. Brakes off c. Remove chocks d. Clear to close all engines
Last Answer : c. Remove chocks
Description : An aircraft flying over the sea between 4500ft and 9000ft AMSL and outside CAS. To continue under VFR the meteorological conditions must remain: a. 2000ft horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with ... visibility of 5km d. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface with visibility of 5km
Last Answer : b. 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km
Description : What are the VMC limits for Class B airspace? a. 8km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface b. 8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from ... . 5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud d. The same as Class D
Last Answer : d. The same as Class D
Description : If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater ... below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately
Last Answer : b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude
Description : A stall warning device must be set to operate: a. At the stalling speed b. At a speed just below the stalling speed c. At a speed about 5% to 10% above the stalling speed d. At a speed about 20% above the stalling speed
Last Answer : c. At a speed about 5% to 10% above the stalling speed
Description : Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack? a. A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing and decrease drag b. An increase in angle of attack will ... of attack will increase drag d. An increase in angle of attack will decrease the lift coefficient
Last Answer : c. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag
Description : On an ILS approach, you are told that the weather has dropped below company minima. When must you abort the approach? a. Start of the glide-slope descent b. FAF c. Inner marker d. Outer marker
Last Answer : d. Outer marker
Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below
Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability
Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP
Last Answer : c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP
Description : Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle
Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance
Description : What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR flights flying in the same direction below FL 290? a. 500ft b. 1000ft c. 2000ft d. 4000ft
Last Answer : c. 2000ft
Description : The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is: a. 500 feet (150m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300m) d. 2000 feet (600m)
Last Answer : c. 1000 feet (300m)
Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above
Last Answer : d. All of the above
Description : What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height? a. Fail soft b. Fail passive c. Fail operational or fail active d. Land 2 system
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : You are flying at a constant FL 290 and a constant mach number. The total temperature increases by 5°. The CAS will: a. Remain approximately constant b. Increase by 10 kts c. Decrease by 10 kts d. Will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA
Last Answer : a. Remain approximately constant
Description : With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected ON': a. Whenever the igniters are on b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture c. Whenever ... is +10°C or below and it is raining d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on
Last Answer : b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture
Description : When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded? a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude b. During ground pressure testing c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs d. When changing to manual operation
Last Answer : a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude
Description : I have a 50ft tall 38 yr old pine tree that needs help, it seems like it's dying
Last Answer : Have you sprayed it with Sevin...............follow the container directions.........wear long old clothes, goggles, mask & gloves.............you might have bore bugs..........keep children & pets away until it dries. call your forrestor, I hate to hear this tree is in danger.
Description : Working from the whole to the part is followed as the fundamental principle of surveying so as to : 1. Distribute errors 2. Improve ease of working 3. Prevent accumulation of errors 4. Compensate error in a way 5. Refer to common datum ... (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 5 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 5
Last Answer : (c) 3 and 4
Description : Cabin altitude in pressured flight is: a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter c. ... pressure equals ambient pressure d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions
Last Answer : a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height
Description : If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment
Last Answer : b. An increased rate of roll
Description : What effect does aspect ratio have on induced drag? a. Increased aspect ratio increases induced drag b. Increased aspect ratio reduces induced drag c. Changing aspect ratio has no effect on induced drag d. Induced drag will equal 1:3 x aspect ratio/chord ratio
Last Answer : b. Increased aspect ratio reduces induced drag
Description : The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to: a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate all speeds plus 10kts b. Reduce ... d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto the water
Last Answer : c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at lowest possible speed with the nose raised for the tail to strike first
Description : During a slow decompression, passengers will occur: a. The cabin temperature will fall as pressure reduces b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in ... will operate d. No contra effects, as slow decompression has no effect on the human body
Last Answer : b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in venting
Description : What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach? a. No minimum b. 50m c. 75m d. 100m
Last Answer : a. No minimum
Description : When can special VFR be commenced? a. Visibility greater than 1500m b. Greater than 3km vis c. Visibility no more than 3000m d. Greater than 5km vis
Last Answer : b. Greater than 3km vis
Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary
Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary