The opening into the vagina on the perineum is termed the a) introitus. The introitus is the vaginal orifice. b) adnexa. Adnexa is a term used to describe the fallopian tubes and ovaries together. c) cervix. The cervix is the bottom (interior) part of the uterus that is located in the vagina. hymen. d) The hymen is a tissue that may cover the vaginal opening partially or completely before vaginal penetration.

The opening into the vagina on the perineum is termed the
a) introitus.
The introitus is the vaginal orifice.
b) adnexa.
Adnexa is a term used to describe the fallopian tubes and ovaries
together.
c) cervix.
The cervix is the bottom (interior) part of the uterus that is located in
the vagina.
hymen.
d) The hymen is a tissue that may cover the vaginal opening partially
or completely before vaginal penetration.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) introitus.
The introitus is the vaginal orifice.
by

Related questions

What part or parts of the male and female reproductive systems are typically colonized by indigenous microbiota? a. Male: Ureters; Female: Vagina And Ovaries b. Male: Testes And Epididymis c. Male: Urethra; Female: Vagina, Vulva, And Cervix d. Male: Bladder And Ureters; Female: Fallopian Tubes And Cervix

Description : What part or parts of the male and female reproductive systems are typically colonized by indigenous microbiota? a. Male: Ureters; Female: Vagina And Ovaries b. Male: Testes And Epididymis c. Male: ... : Vagina, Vulva, And Cervix d. Male: Bladder And Ureters; Female: Fallopian Tubes And Cervix

Last Answer : c. Male: Urethra; Female: Vagina, Vulva, And Cervix

Second degree uterovaginal prolapse is characterized by: a) Complete protrusion of uterus outside introitus. b) Descent of genital tract within vagina. c) Descent of genital tract upto introitus. d) Descent of genital tract outside the introitus. e) Descent of cervix below the ischeal spines.

Description : Second degree uterovaginal prolapse is characterized by: a) Complete protrusion of uterus outside introitus. b) Descent of genital tract within vagina. c) Descent of genital tract upto introitus. d) Descent of genital tract outside the introitus. e) Descent of cervix below the ischeal spines.

Last Answer : d) Descent of genital tract outside the introitus.

An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.

Description : An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease ... d) rectovaginal fistula. A rectovaginal fistula is an opening between the rectum and the vagina.

Last Answer : a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.

Fertilisation in humans is practically feasible only if (a) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the cervix (b) the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus (c) the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube (d) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube.

Description : Fertilisation in humans is practically feasible only if (a) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the cervix (b) the sperms are transported ... the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube.

Last Answer : (d) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube.

Tubectomy is a method of sterilisation in which (a) small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up (b) ovaries are removed surgically (c) small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up (d) uterus is removed surgically.

Description : Tubectomy is a method of sterilisation in which (a) small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up (b) ovaries are removed surgically (c) small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up (d) uterus is removed surgically.

Last Answer : (a) small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up

Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilisation is transferred into (a) uterus (b) fallopian tube (c) fimbriae (d) cervix.

Description : Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilisation is transferred into (a) uterus (b) fallopian tube (c) fimbriae (d) cervix.

Last Answer : (a) uterus

3. In IVF technique zygote or early embryo is transferred into a. Cervical canal b. Uterus c. Fallopian tube d. Vagina

Description : 3. In IVF technique zygote or early embryo is transferred into a. Cervical canal b. Uterus c. Fallopian tube d. Vagina

Last Answer : c. Fallopian tube

Name the organ where the embryo develops - (1) Uterus (2) Fallopian tube (3) Ureter (4) Cervix

Description : Name the organ where the embryo develops - (1) Uterus (2) Fallopian tube (3) Ureter (4) Cervix

Last Answer : (3) Uterus Explanation: In a placental mammal, an ovam is fertilized in a fallopian tube through which it travels into the uterus.

The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the human female reproductive system. Which set of three parts out of I-VI have been correctly identified? I II III V VI IV (a) (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae (b) (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix (c) (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus, (VI) Cervix (d) (I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian tube

Description : The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the human female reproductive system. Which set of three parts out of I-VI have been correctly identified? I II III V VI IV (a) (II) ... , (V) Uterus, (VI) Cervix (d) (I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian tube

Last Answer : (b) (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix

The primary sex organs of the female reproductive system is/are the a. Uterus. b. Vagina. c. Clitoris d. Ovaries.

Description : The primary sex organs of the female reproductive system is/are the a. Uterus. b. Vagina. c. Clitoris d. Ovaries.

Last Answer : d. Ovaries

Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called ... of tissue by freezing. c) Perineorrhaphy Perineorrhaphy refers to sutural repair of perineal lacerations.

Last Answer : a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation). b) anorectal abscess. An anorectal abscess is an infection in the pararectal spaces. c) anal fistula. An anal fistula is a tiny, tubular, fibrous tract that extends into the anal canal from an opening located beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Description : A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent ... beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Last Answer : a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation).

The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is (a) isthmus (b) infundibulum (c) cervix (d) ampulla.

Description : The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is (a) isthmus (b) infundibulum (c) cervix (d) ampulla.

Last Answer : b) infundibulum

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

79. A scrub nurse is assisting an emergency Cesarian section on a 39-year-old laundry woman. Before closing the peritoneum, the surgeon asks, “How old is the client?” Holding the fallopian tube, the surgeon asks for a hemostat. The scrub nurse sensing that the surgeon is about to ligate the tube said, “Doctor there is no signed consent for tubal ligation.” The nurse just demonstrated which of the following?

Description : 79. A scrub nurse is assisting an emergency Cesarian section on a 39-year-old laundry woman. Before closing the peritoneum, the surgeon asks, How old is the client? Holding the fallopian ... there is no signed consent for tubal ligation. The nurse just demonstrated which of the following?

Last Answer : C. Advocacy

When the intern-in-charge did the skin prep and catheterized the client, the circulating nurse noticed when the intern withdrew the catheter from the vagina. What is your appropriate and immediate action? A. Stop the intern and do the catheterization yourself B. Offer to change the catheter C. Alcoholize the tip of the catheter before reinserting the catheter

Description : When the intern-in-charge did the skin prep and catheterized the client, the circulating nurse noticed when the intern withdrew the catheter from the vagina. What is your appropriate and ... . Offer to change the catheter C. Alcoholize the tip of the catheter before reinserting the catheter

Last Answer : B. Offer to change the catheter

The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and Fallopian tubes is (a) glandular (b) ciliated (c) squamous (d) cuboidal.

Description : The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and Fallopian tubes is (a) glandular (b) ciliated (c) squamous (d) cuboidal.

Last Answer : (b) ciliated

The obstructive and irritative symptom complex caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy is termed a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, and a sensation that the bladder has not completely emptied.

Description : The obstructive and irritative symptom complex caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy is termed a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, ... . d) prostatectomy. Prostatectomy refers to the surgical removal of the prostate gland.

Last Answer : a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, and a sensation that the bladder has not completely emptied.

A 23 years old primigravida presents with abdominal pain, syncope and vaginal spotting. Assessment reveals that she has an ectopic pregnancy. The most common site of pregnancy is: a) Ampulla. b) Isthmus. c) Fimbrial end. d) Abdomin. e) Cervix.

Description : A 23 years old primigravida presents with abdominal pain, syncope and vaginal spotting. Assessment reveals that she has an ectopic pregnancy. The most common site of pregnancy is: a) Ampulla. b) Isthmus. c) Fimbrial end. d) Abdomin. e) Cervix.

Last Answer : a) Ampulla.

Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for stimulating the production of progesterone? a) Luteinizing hormone Luteinizing hormone is released by the pituitary gland. b) Follicle-stimulating hormone Follicle-stimulating hormone is responsible for stimulating the ovaries to secrete estrogen. c) Estrogen Estrogens are responsible for developing and maintaining the female reproductive tract. d) Androgen Androgens, secreted in small amounts by the ovaries, are involved in early development of the follicle and also affect the female libido.

Description : Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for stimulating the production of progesterone? a) Luteinizing hormone Luteinizing hormone is released by the pituitary gland. b) Follicle-stimulating ... , are involved in early development of the follicle and also affect the female libido.

Last Answer : a) Luteinizing hormone Luteinizing hormone is released by the pituitary gland.

An increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue that is reversible when the stimulus for production of new cells is removed is termed a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement. b) Hypertrophy. Hypertrophy is an increase in size and bulk of tissue that does not result from an increased number of cells. c) Atrophy. Atrophy refers to reduction in size of a structure after having come to full maturity. d) Neoplasia. With neoplasia, the increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue continues after the stimulus is removed.

Description : An increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue that is reversible when the stimulus for production of new cells is removed is termed a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply ... in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue continues after the stimulus is removed.

Last Answer : a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement.

Which organ is the alternate term for womb? (1) Uterus (2) Ureter (3) Vagina (4) Vulva

Description : Which organ is the alternate term for womb? (1) Uterus (2) Ureter (3) Vagina (4) Vulva

Last Answer : (1) Uterus Explanation: The uterus or womb is a major female hormone-responsive reproductive sex organ of most mammals including humans. It is within the uterus that the fetus develops ... completely in placental mammals such as humans and partially in marsupials such as kangaroos and opossums.

Which organ is the alternate term for womb? (1) Uterus (2) Ureter (3) Vagina (4) Vulva

Description : Which organ is the alternate term for womb? (1) Uterus (2) Ureter (3) Vagina (4) Vulva

Last Answer : Uterus

When the female client reports a frothy yellow-brown vaginal discharge, the nurse suspects the client has a vaginal infection caused by a) trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a frothy yellow-white or yellow-brown vaginal discharge.

Description : When the female client reports a frothy yellow-brown vaginal discharge, the nurse suspects the client has a vaginal infection caused by a) trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a ... the external vulva and vaginal walls. d) chlamydia. Chlamydia causes a profuse purulent discharge.

Last Answer : a) trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a frothy yellow-white or yellow-brown vaginal discharge.

HIV is transmitted through semen in men and vaginal juices in women. So semen or vagina , which fluid spreads more HIV ?

Description : HIV is transmitted through semen in men and vaginal juices in women. So semen or vagina , which fluid spreads more HIV ?

Last Answer : Whether a positive virus is transmitted to a woman during intercourse or not, there is a possibility of infection only if she has intercourse without protection. Therefore, it can be said that the HIV virus can be transmitted through vaginal juice or chambers of women. Thanks.

Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of (a) ovum into the fallopian tube (b) zygote into the fallopian tube (c) zygote into the uterus (d) embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube.

Description : Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of (a) ovum into the fallopian tube (b) zygote into the fallopian tube (c) zygote into the uterus (d) embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube.

Last Answer : b) zygote into the fallopian tube

Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. b) atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis is an abnormal accumulation of lipid deposits and fibrous tissue within arterial walls and lumens. c) atheroma Atheromas are fibrous caps composed of smooth muscle cells that form over lipid deposits within arterial vessels. d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. ... d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Last Answer : a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia.

Which of the following terms is used to describe the opening of the urethra on the dorsum of the penis? a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis and is usually repaired through plastic surgery when the boy is very young.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe the opening of the urethra on the dorsum of the penis? a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral ... Urethritis Urethritis refers to inflammation of the urethra and is commonly associated with sexually transmitted disease.

Last Answer : a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis and is usually repaired through plastic surgery when the boy is very young.

The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females (a) who cannot produce an ovum (b) who cannot retain the fetus inside uterus (c) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms (d) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation.

Description : The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females (a) who cannot produce an ovum (b) who cannot retain the fetus inside uterus (c) whose cervical ... narrow to allow passage for the sperms (d) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation.

Last Answer : (a) who cannot produce an ovum

What is true about cleavage in the fertilised egg in humans? (a) It starts while the egg is in fallopian tube. (b) It starts when the egg reaches uterus. (c) It is meroblastic. (d) It is identical to the normal mitosis

Description : What is true about cleavage in the fertilised egg in humans? (a) It starts while the egg is in fallopian tube. (b) It starts when the egg reaches uterus. (c) It is meroblastic. (d) It is identical to the normal mitosis

Last Answer : (a) It starts while the egg is in fallopian tube

A 28 years old G3 P2 has presented with complaints of brownish vaginal discharge, passage of vesicles and excessive vomiting. Ultrasound scan shows snowstorm appearance in uterus with no fetus. The most likely diagnosis is: a) Septic induced abortion. b) Twin pregnancy. c) Gestational trophoblastic disease. d) Ectopic pregnancy. e) Fibroid uterus.

Description : A 28 years old G3 P2 has presented with complaints of brownish vaginal discharge, passage of vesicles and excessive vomiting. Ultrasound scan shows snowstorm appearance in uterus with no fetus. The ... Twin pregnancy. c) Gestational trophoblastic disease. d) Ectopic pregnancy. e) Fibroid uterus.

Last Answer : The answer is most likely (a) a septic abortion, because the young lady is presenting with symptoms of a serious uterine infection that is discoloring her normal uterine disharge due to the presence ... or a passige of vesicles alongside the absence of a fetus on the ultrasound, hence the abortion.

Progesterone administration: A. Suppresses onset of menstruation B. Induces watery cervical secretion C. Sensitizes the uterus to oxytocin D. Cornifies vaginal epithelium

Description : Progesterone administration: A. Suppresses onset of menstruation B. Induces watery cervical secretion C. Sensitizes the uterus to oxytocin D. Cornifies vaginal epithelium

Last Answer : A. Suppresses onset of menstruation

The nurse places the patient after liver biopsy in which of the following positions? a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded.

Description : The nurse places the patient after liver biopsy in which of the following positions? a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest ... . d) High Fowler's High Fowler's position is not indicated for the patient after liver biopsy.

Last Answer : a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded.

Paresthesia is the term used to refer to a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. b) absence of muscle movement suggesting nerve damage. The absence of muscle tone suggesting nerve damage is referred to as paralysis. c) involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. Involuntary twitch of muscle fibers is referred to as fasciculation. d) absence of muscle tone. A muscle which holds no tone is termed flaccid.

Description : Paresthesia is the term used to refer to a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. b) absence of muscle movement suggesting ... fasciculation. d) absence of muscle tone. A muscle which holds no tone is termed flaccid.

Last Answer : a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias.

Rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after transplant is termed a) hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney.

Description : Rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after transplant is termed a) hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney. b) acute rejection. Acute ... term simple is not used in the categorization of types of rejection of kidney transplants.

Last Answer : a) hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney.

Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the patient breathes in the anesthetic mixture and experiences warmth, dizziness, and a feeling of detachment. c) II Stage II is the excitement stage, which may be characterized by struggling, singing, laughing, or crying. d) IV Stage IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Description : Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the ... IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Last Answer : a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours.

According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma). b) primary. Primary hypertension has no known underlying cause. c) essential. Essential hypertension has no known underlying cause. d) isolated systolic. Isolated systolic hypertension is demonstrated by readings in which the systolic pressure exceeds 140 mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Description : According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of ... mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Last Answer : a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma).

When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms. b) acute. Acute PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms for less than a 3-month period. c) chronic. Chronic PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms lasting longer than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Description : When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there ... than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from (a) testes to epididymis (b) epididymis to vas deferens (c) ovary to uterus (d) vagina to uterus.

Description : If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from (a) testes to epididymis (b) epididymis to vas deferens (c) ovary to uterus (d) vagina to uterus.

Last Answer : (a) testes to epididymis

Fertilization of the ovum by the sperm usually occurs in the: a) oviduct b) vagina c) uterus d) ovary

Description : Fertilization of the ovum by the sperm usually occurs in the: a) oviduct b) vagina c) uterus d) ovary

Last Answer : ANSWER: A -- OVIDUCT

Which of the following structures is directly attached to the ovary? a) oviduct b) uterus c) suspensory ligaments d) vagina

Description : Which of the following structures is directly attached to the ovary? a) oviduct b) uterus c) suspensory ligaments d) vagina

Last Answer : ANSWER: C -- SUSPENSORY LIGAMENTS

Nondisjunction of a chromosome results in which of the following diagnoses? a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two copies of a particular chromosome (nondisjunction) Down syndrome results from three number 21 chromosomes. b) Huntingon Disease Huntington disease is one example of a germ-line mutation. c) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an inherited form of muscular dystrophy, is an example of a genetic caused by structural gene mutations. d) Marphan Syndrome Marphan Syndrome is a genetic condition that may occur in a single family member as a result of spontaneous mutation.

Description : Nondisjunction of a chromosome results in which of the following diagnoses? a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two ... genetic condition that may occur in a single family member as a result of spontaneous mutation.

Last Answer : a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two copies of a particular chromosome (nondisjunction) Down syndrome results from three number 21 chromosomes.

How does damage to the fallopian tubes affect fertility, exactly?

Description : How does damage to the fallopian tubes affect fertility, exactly?

Last Answer : answer:The fallopian tubes are the ducts running from the ovaries that the eggs travels down to plant themselves in the walls of the uterus.where fertilization takes place. That is the mechanical problem with ... too damaged? That will be up to the physician. Hope it all turns out alright for you.

The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of Fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are known as

Description : The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of Fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are known as

Last Answer : The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of Fallopian tubes, bronchioles ... epithelium C. Cilated epithelium D. Cubical epithelilum

The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of Fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are known as

Description : The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of Fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are known as

Last Answer : The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of Fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small ... Squamous B. Cuboidal C. Glandular D. Ciliated

The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, these cells are mainly present in (a) bronchioles and Fallopian tubes (b) bile duct and bronchioles (c) Fallopian tubes and pancreatic duct (d) Eustachian tube and salivary duct

Description : The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, these cells are mainly present in (a) bronchioles and Fallopian tubes (b) bile duct and bronchioles (c) Fallopian tubes and pancreatic duct (d) Eustachian tube and salivary duct

Last Answer : (a) bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and ... The pia mater is the innermost membrane of the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord.

Last Answer : a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and ... to the state of liver disease in which the liver continues to be able to function effectively.

Last Answer : a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.