Rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after transplant is termed a) hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney.

Rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after
transplant is termed
a) hyperacute rejection.
Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney.
b) acute rejection.
Acute rejection occurs within 3-14 days of transplantation.
c) chronic rejection.
Chronic rejection occurs after many years.
d) simple rejection.
The term simple is not used in the categorization of types of rejection
of kidney transplants.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) hyperacute rejection.
Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney.
by

Related questions

Which of the following responses identifies a role of T lymphocytes? a) Transplant rejection Transplant rejection and graft-versus-host disease are cellular response roles of T cells.

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Last Answer : a) Transplant rejection Transplant rejection and graft-versus-host disease are cellular response roles of T cells.

Bladder retraining following removal of an indwelling catheter begins with instructing the patient to follow a 2-3 hour timed voiding schedule. Immediately after the removal of the indwelling catheter, the patient is placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually two to three hours. At the given time interval, the patient is instructed to void. a) encouraging the patient to void immediately. Immediate voiding is not usually encouraged. The patient is commonly placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually within two to three hours.

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Last Answer : a) encouraging the patient to void immediately. Immediate voiding is not usually encouraged. The patient is commonly placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually within two to three hours.

When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening. b) urgent. Urgent surgery means that the patient requires prompt attention within 24-30 hours. c) required. Required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. d) elective. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

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Last Answer : a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.

The term or disease associated with buildup of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus cavernosum causing curvature of the penis when it is erect is known as a) Peyronie’s disease. Peyronie’s disease may require surgical removal of the plaques when the disease makes sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible.

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Last Answer : a) Peyronie’s disease. Peyronie’s disease may require surgical removal of the plaques when the disease makes sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible.

Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the patient breathes in the anesthetic mixture and experiences warmth, dizziness, and a feeling of detachment. c) II Stage II is the excitement stage, which may be characterized by struggling, singing, laughing, or crying. d) IV Stage IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

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Last Answer : a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours.

A post-traumatic seizure classified as early occurs a) within 1-7 days of injury. Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (occurring within 24 hours of injury), early, (occurring within 1-7 days of injury) or late, occurring more than 7 days following injury.

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The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log every injection of Demerol B. Make fraction dosage like 0.5 ml as 1 ml C. Demerol inventory must be checked every endorsement by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

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Last Answer : D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

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A steady state within the body is termed a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain the steady state or homeostasis. b) Constancy. Constancy refers to the balanced internal state of the human body maintained by physiologic and biochemical processes. c) Adaptation. Adaptation refers to a constant, ongoing process that requires change in structure, function, or behavior so that the person is better suited to the environment. d) Stress. Stress refers to a state produced by a change in the environment that is perceived as challenging, threatening, or damaging to the person’s dynamic balance or equilibrium.

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Cytotoxic T cells a) lyse cells infected with virus. Cytotoxic T cells play a role in graft rejection.

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Last Answer : a) lyse cells infected with virus. Cytotoxic T cells play a role in graft rejection.

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

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Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

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The opening into the vagina on the perineum is termed the a) introitus. The introitus is the vaginal orifice. b) adnexa. Adnexa is a term used to describe the fallopian tubes and ovaries together. c) cervix. The cervix is the bottom (interior) part of the uterus that is located in the vagina. hymen. d) The hymen is a tissue that may cover the vaginal opening partially or completely before vaginal penetration.

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According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma). b) primary. Primary hypertension has no known underlying cause. c) essential. Essential hypertension has no known underlying cause. d) isolated systolic. Isolated systolic hypertension is demonstrated by readings in which the systolic pressure exceeds 140 mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

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Last Answer : a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma).

When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms. b) acute. Acute PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms for less than a 3-month period. c) chronic. Chronic PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms lasting longer than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

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Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

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The term used to describe total urine output of less than 400 mL in 24 hours is a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure.

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Last Answer : a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure.

If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding. b) every hour. Checking for placement each hour is unnecessary unless the patient is extremely restless or there is basis for rechecking the tube based on other patient activities. c) every 24 hours. Checking for placement every 24 hours does not meet the standard of care due the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. d) when a tube feeding is continuous, it is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

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Which of the following categories of laxatives draw water into the intestines by osmosis? a) Saline agents (milk of magnesia) Saline agents use osmosis to stimulate peristalsis and act within 2 hours of consumption.

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Last Answer : a) Saline agents (milk of magnesia) Saline agents use osmosis to stimulate peristalsis and act within 2 hours of consumption.

Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs. b) Labile Labile cells multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes. c) Permanent Permanent cells include neurons — the nerve cell bodies, not their axons. Destruction of a neuron causes permanent loss, but axons may regenerate. d) Epithelial Epithelial cells are a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

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Last Answer : a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs.

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation.

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The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief. b) vomiting. Vomiting is uncommon in the patient with duodenal ulcer. c) hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is less likely in the patient with duodenal ulcer than the patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

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Last Answer : a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief.

During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize. b) Promotion During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods. c) Initiation During this first step, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

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Last Answer : a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize.

An increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue that is reversible when the stimulus for production of new cells is removed is termed a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement. b) Hypertrophy. Hypertrophy is an increase in size and bulk of tissue that does not result from an increased number of cells. c) Atrophy. Atrophy refers to reduction in size of a structure after having come to full maturity. d) Neoplasia. With neoplasia, the increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue continues after the stimulus is removed.

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Last Answer : a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement.

Which of the following methods to induce hemostasis after sheath removal post Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty is the least effective? a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several nursing interventions frequently used as part of the standard of care, such as applying a sandbag to the sheath insertion site, have not been shown to be effective in reducing the incidence of bleeding.

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Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. b) atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis is an abnormal accumulation of lipid deposits and fibrous tissue within arterial walls and lumens. c) atheroma Atheromas are fibrous caps composed of smooth muscle cells that form over lipid deposits within arterial vessels. d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

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Last Answer : a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia.

A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

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Last Answer : a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to surgery to repair and stabilize a fracture. c) heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification refers to formation of bone in the periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

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Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.

Paresthesia is the term used to refer to a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. b) absence of muscle movement suggesting nerve damage. The absence of muscle tone suggesting nerve damage is referred to as paralysis. c) involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. Involuntary twitch of muscle fibers is referred to as fasciculation. d) absence of muscle tone. A muscle which holds no tone is termed flaccid.

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Last Answer : a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias.

Bleeding between the dura mater and arachnoid membrane is termed a) subdural hematoma. A subdural hematoma is bleeding between the dura mater and arachnoid membrane.

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Last Answer : a) subdural hematoma. A subdural hematoma is bleeding between the dura mater and arachnoid membrane.

Which of the following terms related to aphasia refers to difficulty in selecting appropriate words, particularly nouns? a) Anomia Anomia is also termed dysnomia.

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Last Answer : a) Anomia Anomia is also termed dysnomia.

Edema of the conjunctiva is termed a) chemosis. Chemosis is a common manifestation of pink-eye.

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Last Answer : a) chemosis. Chemosis is a common manifestation of pink-eye.

The obstructive and irritative symptom complex caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy is termed a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, and a sensation that the bladder has not completely emptied.

Description : The obstructive and irritative symptom complex caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy is termed a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, ... . d) prostatectomy. Prostatectomy refers to the surgical removal of the prostate gland.

Last Answer : a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, and a sensation that the bladder has not completely emptied.

A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation). b) anorectal abscess. An anorectal abscess is an infection in the pararectal spaces. c) anal fistula. An anal fistula is a tiny, tubular, fibrous tract that extends into the anal canal from an opening located beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Description : A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent ... beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Last Answer : a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation).

Which of the following terms refers to the symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which is characterized by a burning sensation in the esophagus? a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to a burning sensation in the esophagus and indicates GERD. b) Dyspepsia Indigestion is termed dyspepsia. c) Dysphagia Difficulty swallowing is termed dysphagia. d) Odynophagia Pain on swallowing is termed odynophagia.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which is characterized by a burning sensation in the esophagus? a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to ... Dysphagia Difficulty swallowing is termed dysphagia. d) Odynophagia Pain on swallowing is termed odynophagia.

Last Answer : a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to a burning sensation in the esophagus and indicates GERD.

Irritation of the lips associated with scaling, crust formation, and fissures is termed a) leukoplakia. Leukoplakia is characterized by white patches, usually on the buccal mucosa.

Description : Irritation of the lips associated with scaling, crust formation, and fissures is termed a) leukoplakia. Leukoplakia is characterized by white patches, usually on the buccal mucosa. b) lichen ... a reddened circumscribed lesion that ulcerates and becomes crusted and is a primary lesion of syphilis.

Last Answer : a) leukoplakia. Leukoplakia is characterized by white patches, usually on the buccal mucosa.

A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein. b) air plethysmography Air plethysmography quantifies venous reflux and calf muscle pump ejection.

Description : A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x ... d) lymphoscintigraphy. In lymphoscintigraphy, a radioactive-labeled colloid is injected into the lymph system.

Last Answer : a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein.

Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT). b) occur during the QRS complex. PVCs are dangerous when they occur on the T wave. c) have the same shape. PVCs are dangerous when they are multifocal (have different shapes). d) are paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Description : Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they ... paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Last Answer : a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT).

When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulations, the wound healing is termed a) second intention healing. When wounds dehisce, they will be allowed to heal by secondary intention. b) primary intention healing. Primary or first intention healing is the method of healing in which wound edges are surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored without granulating.

Description : When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulations, the wound healing is termed a) ... of wound edges is delayed and integumentary continuity is restored by bringing apposing granulations together.

Last Answer : a) second intention healing. When wounds dehisce, they will be allowed to heal by secondary intention.

A preferred provider organization is described as a a) Business arrangement between hospitals and physicians. PPO’s usually contract to provide health care to subscribers, usually businesses, for a negotiated fee that often is discounted. b) Prepaid group health practice system. A prepaid group health practice system is termed a health maintenance organization. c) Limited insurance program. Insurance is a cost payment system of shared risk, not a health care delivery system. d) Health care savings account program. A health care savings account program is an incentive program to consumers, not a health care delivery system.

Description : A preferred provider organization is described as a a) Business arrangement between hospitals and physicians. PPO's usually contract to provide health care to subscribers, usually businesses, for a ... savings account program is an incentive program to consumers, not a health care delivery system.

Last Answer : a) Business arrangement between hospitals and physicians. PPO’s usually contract to provide health care to subscribers, usually businesses, for a negotiated fee that often is discounted.

The first step in decontamination is a. Removal of the patient’s clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. To be effective, decontamination must include a minimum of two steps. The first step is removal of the patient’s clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. The second step consists of a thorough soap and water wash and rinse.

Description : The first step in decontamination is a. Removal of the patient's clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. To be effective, decontamination must include a minimum of two steps. The ... the patient with water. The second step consists of a thorough soap and water wash and rinse.

Last Answer : a. Removal of the patient's clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. To be effective, decontamination must include a minimum of two steps. The first step is removal of the patient ... the patient with water. The second step consists of a thorough soap and water wash and rinse.

Which of the following terms refers to surgical removal of one of the testes? a) Orchiectomy Orchiectomy is required when the testicle has been damaged.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to surgical removal of one of the testes? a) Orchiectomy Orchiectomy is required when the testicle has been damaged. b) Circumcision Circumcision is excision ... describes the surgical repair of a hydrocele, a collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis.

Last Answer : a) Orchiectomy Orchiectomy is required when the testicle has been damaged.

Which of the following statements defines laparoscopic myomectomy—an alternative to hysterectomy for the treatment of excessive bleeding due to fibroids? a) Removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision. Laparoscopic myomectomy is the removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision.

Description : Which of the following statements defines laparoscopic myomectomy-an alternative to hysterectomy for the treatment of excessive bleeding due to fibroids? a) Removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted ... through a hyserscope passed through the cervix; no incision or overnight stay is needed.

Last Answer : a) Removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision. Laparoscopic myomectomy is the removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision.

Which of the following terms most precisely refers to the incision of the common bile duct for removal of stones? a) Choledocholithotomy Choledocholithotomy refers to incision of the common bile duct for the removal of stones (liths).

Description : Which of the following terms most precisely refers to the incision of the common bile duct for removal of stones? a) Choledocholithotomy Choledocholithotomy refers to incision of the ... . d) Choledochoduodenostomy Choledochoduodenostomy refers to anastomosis of the common duct to the duodenum.

Last Answer : a) Choledocholithotomy Choledocholithotomy refers to incision of the common bile duct for the removal of stones (liths).

To assess circulating oxygen levels the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines recommends the use of which of the following diagnostic tests? a) Hemoglobin Although hematocrit has always been the blood test of choice to assess for anemia, the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines, recommend that anemia be quantified using hemoglobin rather than hematocrit measurements, as it is more accurate in assessment of circulating oxygen.

Description : To assess circulating oxygen levels the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines recommends the use of which of the following diagnostic tests? a) Hemoglobin ... gases Arterial blood gases assess the adequacy of oxygenation, ventilation, and acid-base status.

Last Answer : a) Hemoglobin Although hematocrit has always been the blood test of choice to assess for anemia, the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines, recommend that ... rather than hematocrit measurements, as it is more accurate in assessment of circulating oxygen.

The relaxation techniques of progressive muscle relaxation, relaxation with guided imagery, and the Benson Relaxation Response share which of the following elements? a) A mental device (something on which to focus the attention) Similar elements also include a quiet environment, a comfortable position, and a passive attitude. b) Nutritional foundation Relaxation techniques do not encompass specific nutritional guidelines. c) Analgesic preparation Relaxation techniques are used to reduce one’s response to stress and do not require analgesia prior to practicing the techniques. d) Physician’s order A physician’s order is not required to assist an individual to learn techniques to reduce one’s response to stress.

Description : The relaxation techniques of progressive muscle relaxation, relaxation with guided imagery, and the Benson Relaxation Response share which of the following elements? a) A mental device (something on which ... required to assist an individual to learn techniques to reduce one's response to stress.

Last Answer : a) A mental device (something on which to focus the attention) Similar elements also include a quiet environment, a comfortable position, and a passive attitude.