Which of the following terms is used to describe removal of the breast tissue and an axillary lymph node dissection leaving muscular structure intact as surgical treatment of breast cancer? a) Modified radical mastectomy A modified radical mastectomy leaves the pectoralis major and minor muscles intact. b) Segmental mastectomy In a segmental mastectomy, varying amounts of breast tissue are removed, including the malignant tissue and some surrounding tissue to ensure clear margins. c) Total mastectomy In a total mastectomy, breast tissue only is removed. d) Radical mastectomy Radical mastectomy includes removal of the pectoralis major and minor muscles in addition to breast tissue and axillary lymph node dissection.

Which of the following terms is used to describe removal of the
breast tissue and an axillary lymph node dissection leaving muscular
structure intact as surgical treatment of breast cancer?
a) Modified radical mastectomy
A modified radical mastectomy leaves the pectoralis major and minor
muscles intact.
b) Segmental mastectomy
In a segmental mastectomy, varying amounts of breast tissue are
removed, including the malignant tissue and some surrounding tissue
to ensure clear margins.
c) Total mastectomy
In a total mastectomy, breast tissue only is removed.
d) Radical mastectomy
Radical mastectomy includes removal of the pectoralis major and
minor muscles in addition to breast tissue and axillary lymph node
dissection.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Modified radical mastectomy
A modified radical mastectomy leaves the pectoralis major and minor
muscles intact.
by

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The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated doses C. The same regimen which is palliative for a large solid tumour may be curative after surgical removal of the tumour D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

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Regarding the surgical patient, which of the following terms refers to the period of time that constitutes the surgical experience? a) Perioperative phase Perioperative period includes the preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative phases. b) Preoperative phase Preoperative phase is the period of time from when the decision for surgical intervention is made to when the patient is transferred to the operating room table.

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Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

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During which stage of the immune response does the circulating lymphocyte containing the antigenic message return to the nearest lymph node? a) Proliferation Once in the node, the sensitized lymphocyte stimulates some of the resident dormant T and B lymphocytes to enlarge, divide, and proliferate.

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I had my right breast and the sentinel node removed after a byopsy removed a mammory glad with cancer. The pathology report of the breast and node showed no cancer cells. I have some family cancer hist and my dr wants me to take chemo and I dont want to?

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Which of the following terms refers to muscular hypertonicity with increased resistance to stretch? a) Spasticity Spasticity is often associated with weakness, increased deep tendon reflexes, and diminished superficial reflexes.

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Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor’s office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid for analysis. It has been shown to identify atypical cells in this population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

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The nurse recognizes which of the following statements as accurately reflecting a risk factor for breast cancer? a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases twofold if first-degree female relatives (sister, mother, or daughter) had breast cancer.

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A number of prospective clinical trials have addressed the role of total parenteral nutrition in the cancer patient. The results have been somewhat conflicting. Which of the following statement(s) have been proven correct by prospective trials? a. Preoperative TPN is beneficial in surgical patients with severe preoperative nutrition b. Postoperative TPN is of value following pancreatic resection c. Routine use of perioperative (including prior to the procedure) TPN is of benefit in patients undergoing hepatectomy for hepatoma d. TPN is of no benefit in patients undergoing bone marrow transplant

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Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

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Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

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Why do women who undergo a double mastectomy opt for fake breast?

Description : Why do women who undergo a double mastectomy opt for fake breast?

Last Answer : Aesthetically pleasing/personal preference.

Lymph Node Removal

Description : Lymph Node Removal

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During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

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An osmotic diuretic, such as Mannitol, is given to the patient with increased intracranial pressure (IICP) in order to a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics draw water across intact membranes, thereby reducing the volume of brain and extracellular fluid.

Description : An osmotic diuretic, such as Mannitol, is given to the patient with increased intracranial pressure (IICP) in order to a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics ... Medications such as barbiturates are given to the patient with IICP to reduce cellular metabolic demands.

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Which of the following types of incontinence refers to involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure? a) Stress Stress incontinence may occur with sneezing and coughing.

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Through which of the following activities does the patient learn to consciously contract excretory sphincters and control voiding cues? a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge incontinence may gain bladder control through biofeedback. b) Kegel exercises Kegel exercises are pelvic floor exercises that strengthen the pubococcygeus muscle. c) Habit training Habit training is used to try to keep the patient dry by strictly adhering to a toileting schedule and may be successful with stress, urge, or functional incontinence. d) Bladder training Habit training is a type of bladder training.

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Last Answer : a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge incontinence may gain bladder control through biofeedback.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

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Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

Which is NOT a correct consequence of surgical removal of portions of these glands? A) adrenal cortex--bronzing of skin, no glucose at stress, dehydration and death B) thymus--decrease in sex drive and changes in secondary sexual characteristics C) parathyroid glands--drop in blood calcium level and tetany (muscles shake) D) ovaries--alteration in menstrual cycle and change in secondary sex characteristics E) adult thyroid--low pulse rate and body temperature and lethargy

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Development of malignant melanoma is associated with which of the following risk factors? a) Individuals with a history of severe sunburn Ultraviolet rays are strongly suspected as the etiology of malignant melanoma.

Description : Development of malignant melanoma is associated with which of the following risk factors? a) Individuals with a history of severe sunburn Ultraviolet rays are strongly suspected as the etiology ... the southwestern United States appear to have a higher incidence of development of malignant melanoma.

Last Answer : a) Individuals with a history of severe sunburn Ultraviolet rays are strongly suspected as the etiology of malignant melanoma.

When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, indicates squamous cell carcinoma. b) normal. A class 1 Pap smear is interpreted as normal. c) probably normal. A class 2 Pap smear is interpreted as probably normal. d) suspicious. A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.

Description : When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, ... is interpreted as probably normal. d) suspicious. A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.

Last Answer : a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, indicates squamous cell carcinoma.

Which of the following manifestations is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia? a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia. b) Hypotension Hypotension is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia. c) Elevated temperature The rise in temperature is actually a late sign that develops rapidly. d) Oliguria Scant urinary output is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia.

Description : Which of the following manifestations is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia? a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant ... develops rapidly. d) Oliguria Scant urinary output is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia.

Last Answer : a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia.