The first dressing change for an autografted area is performed a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent infection may indicate infection and should be reported to the surgeon immediately.

The first dressing change for an autografted area is performed
a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days
after surgery.
A foul odor or purulent infection may indicate infection and should be
reported to the surgeon immediately.
b) within 12 hours after surgery.
The first dressing change usually occurs 3-5 days after surgery.
c) within 24 hours after surgery.
The first dressing change usually occurs 3-5 days after surgery.
d) as soon as sanguineous drainage is noted.
Sanguineous drainage on a dressing covering an autograft is an
anticipated abnormal observation postoperatively.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days
after surgery.
A foul odor or purulent infection may indicate infection and should be
reported to the surgeon immediately.
by

Related questions

When the surgeon performs an appendectomy, the nurse recognizes that the surgical category will be identified as a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited source for infection, the exposure to which, to a large extent, can be controlled. b) clean. Clean cases are those with no apparent source of potential infection. c) contaminated. Contaminated cases are those that contain an open and obvious source of potential infection. d) dirty. A traumatic wound with foreign bodies, fecal contamination, or purulent drainage would be considered a dirty case.

Description : When the surgeon performs an appendectomy, the nurse recognizes that the surgical category will be identified as a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited ... with foreign bodies, fecal contamination, or purulent drainage would be considered a dirty case.

Last Answer : a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited source for infection, the exposure to which, to a large extent, can be controlled.

When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.

Description : When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement ... Pancrease. Commercially available enzymatic debriding agents include Accuzyme, Clooagenase, Granulex, and Zymase.

Last Answer : a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.

Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

Description : Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs ... pain at the recipient site is anticipated since the wound has been protected by the graft.

Last Answer : a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure. b) Increased appetite Loss of appetite should be reported immediately. c) Weight loss Weight gain should be reported immediately. d) Ability to sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Description : The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of ... sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Last Answer : a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure.

As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the top dressing B. Continue to monitor the vital signs C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Description : As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the ... C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Last Answer : D. Assess the presence of a drain

After the last stitch, the surgeon is ready to apply dressing to the incision wound. Which of the following does the nurse expect the surgeon to do? A. Remove his gloves and apply the dressing B. Apply the dressings and tape and then remove his gloves C. Put the dressings and remove his gloves to apply the tape D. Tape the dressing and remove the gloves

Description : After the last stitch, the surgeon is ready to apply dressing to the incision wound. Which of the following does the nurse expect the surgeon to do? A. Remove his gloves and apply the dressing B. ... the dressings and remove his gloves to apply the tape D. Tape the dressing and remove the gloves

Last Answer : C. Put the dressings and remove his gloves to apply the tape

30. A T-tube was inserted and the physician ordered, “Monitor the amount, color, consistency and odor of drainage.” Which of the following procedures can the nurse perform without the doctor’s order?

Description : 30. A T-tube was inserted and the physician ordered, “Monitor the amount, color, consistency and odor of drainage.” Which of the following procedures can the nurse perform without the doctor’s order?

Last Answer : D. Emptying the drainage

When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

Description : When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) ... urination is a sign of urinary tract infection, not an adverse effect of gamma-globulin infusion.

Last Answer : a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening. b) drainage. Drainage at the site does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. c) tissue sloughing. Sloughing of tissue at the site of injection does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. d) bruising. Bruising of tissue at the site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Description : When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for ... site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Last Answer : a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening.

In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse assesses coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration by listening over the trachea with a stethoscope. The nurse should immediately A. Position client to Fowler’s B. Reassure the client that he is doing fine C. Suction the tracheostomy tube D. Report to the surgeon

Description : In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse assesses coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration by listening over the trachea with a stethoscope. The nurse should immediately A. Position client to ... the client that he is doing fine C. Suction the tracheostomy tube D. Report to the surgeon

Last Answer : Which of the following expected outcomes for the patient is most relevant for the nursing diagnosis “At risk for imbalanced nutrition related to impaired swallowing”? A. Appropriate body weight maintained B. Fear of choking relieved C. Oral intake increased D. Swallowing of soft foods facilitated

The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion

Description : The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion

Last Answer : A. Gastric decompression

Before the patient diagnosed with a concussion is released from the Emergency Department, the nurse teaches the family or friends who will be tending to the patient to contact the physician or return to the ED if the patient a) vomits. Vomiting is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and should be reported immediately.

Description : Before the patient diagnosed with a concussion is released from the Emergency Department, the nurse teaches the family or friends who will be tending to the patient to contact the physician or ... for short periods of time. Difficulty in waking the patient should be reported or treated immediately.

Last Answer : a) vomits. Vomiting is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and should be reported immediately.

When the valve used in valve replacement surgery is made from the patient’s own heart valve, which of the following terms is used? a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the surgeon excises the pulmonic valve and uses it for an aortic valve replacement. b) Allograft Allograft refers to replacement using human tissue and is a synonym for homograft. c) Homograft Homograft refers to replacement using human tissue and is a synonym for allograft. d) Xenograft Xenograft refers to replacement of tissue from animal tissue.

Description : When the valve used in valve replacement surgery is made from the patient's own heart valve, which of the following terms is used? a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the ... and is a synonym for allograft. d) Xenograft Xenograft refers to replacement of tissue from animal tissue.

Last Answer : a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the surgeon excises the pulmonic valve and uses it for an aortic valve replacement.

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain of the fluid, which will likely demonstrate multiple bacteria including predominantly gram-positive rods b. A CT scan is indicated in a stable patient to define the extent of the disease c. Broad spectrum antibiotics followed with prompt extensive debridement is indicated d. A safe guideline is to resect infected necrotic tissue so that a several centimeter margin of grossly normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Description : A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain ... normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The presence of severe perineal infection (referred to as Fournier gangrene when this process involves the perineum and scrotum in males) is associated with a ... often provides improved wound care and patient management, although it is not invariably a positive outcome

Which of the following venous access devices can be used for no more than 30 days in patients requiring parenteral nutrition? a) Non-tunneled catheter The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the subclavian area provides a stable insertion site to which the catheter can be anchored, allows the patient freedom of movement, and provides easy access to the dressing site.

Description : Which of the following venous access devices can be used for no more than 30 days in patients requiring parenteral nutrition? a) Non-tunneled catheter The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the ... term home IV therapy (eg, Port A Cath, Mediport, Hickman Port, P.A.S. Port).

Last Answer : a) Non-tunneled catheter The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the subclavian area provides a stable insertion site to which the catheter can be anchored, allows the patient freedom of movement, and provides easy access to the dressing site.

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

Antimicrobial barrier?Acticoat dressings used in the treatment of burn wounds can be left in place for five days. a) antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in place for?Acticoat up to five days thus helping to decrease discomfort to the patient, decrease costs of dressing supplies, and decrease nursing time involved in burn dressing changes.

Description : Antimicrobial barrier?Acticoat dressings used in the treatment of burn wounds can be left in place for five days. a) antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in place for?Acticoat up to five days ... ) two days. antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in?Acticoat place for up to five days.

Last Answer : a) antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in place for?Acticoat up to five days thus helping to decrease discomfort to the patient, decrease costs of dressing supplies, and decrease nursing time involved in burn dressing changes.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted. b) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted.

Which of the following statements describe refractive surgery? a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is considered a cosmetic procedure (to achieve clear vision without the aid of prosthetic devices). It is performed to reshape the cornea for the purpose of correction of all refractive errors.

Description : Which of the following statements describe refractive surgery? a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is ... a stable refractive error. The corneal structure must be normal and refractive error stable.

Last Answer : a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is considered a cosmetic procedure (to achieve clear vision without ... is performed to reshape the cornea for the purpose of correction of all refractive errors.

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Description : When the nurse reviews the physician's progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle's sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the ... CSF) from the patient's nose. Escape of CSF from the patient's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

Last Answer : a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the following is true? A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the incidence. C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zn oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Description : As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the following is true? A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics ... and irrigation is mandatory E. Zn oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Last Answer : C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology

As far as localised alveolar osteitis (dry socket) is concerned; which one of the following is true? M07 A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the incidence. C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zinc oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Description : As far as localised alveolar osteitis (dry socket) is concerned; which one of the following is true? M07 A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic ... diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zinc oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Last Answer : C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology

Which of the following terms is used to describe hemorrhage from the nose? a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose. b) Xerostomia Xerostomia refers to dryness of the mouth. c) Rhinorrhea Rhinorrhea refers to drainage of a large amount of fluid from the nose. d) Dysphagia Dysphagia refers to difficulties in swallowing.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe hemorrhage from the nose? a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose. b ... of a large amount of fluid from the nose. d) Dysphagia Dysphagia refers to difficulties in swallowing.

Last Answer : a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose.

Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined “hot zone” for a period of a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were inhaled, bacteria will be killed immediately upon release from spores. Those who have symptoms of fever, cough, headache, chills, and especially evidence of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.

Description : Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined hot zone for a period of a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should ... . Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic

Last Answer : a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were ... of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.

Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement, airway management, and standard nursing care support during the time that the patient has meningitis symptoms. a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

Description : Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement ... the virus to animals and humans. There is no human-to-human transmission of virus.

Last Answer : a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

85. When the surgeon asked for suture to close the abdomen, sponge count has not been completed. Which of the following is the appropriate action of the scrub nurse?

Description : 85. When the surgeon asked for suture to close the abdomen, sponge count has not been completed. Which of the following is the appropriate action of the scrub nurse?

Last Answer : D. Informs the surgeon that sponge count has not been completed

79. A scrub nurse is assisting an emergency Cesarian section on a 39-year-old laundry woman. Before closing the peritoneum, the surgeon asks, “How old is the client?” Holding the fallopian tube, the surgeon asks for a hemostat. The scrub nurse sensing that the surgeon is about to ligate the tube said, “Doctor there is no signed consent for tubal ligation.” The nurse just demonstrated which of the following?

Description : 79. A scrub nurse is assisting an emergency Cesarian section on a 39-year-old laundry woman. Before closing the peritoneum, the surgeon asks, How old is the client? Holding the fallopian ... there is no signed consent for tubal ligation. The nurse just demonstrated which of the following?

Last Answer : C. Advocacy

The usual incubation period (infection to first symptom) for hepatitis B is a) 45-160 days. Hepatitis B is responsible for more than 200 deaths of healthcare workers annually.

Description : The usual incubation period (infection to first symptom) for hepatitis B is a) 45-160 days. Hepatitis B is responsible for more than 200 deaths of healthcare workers annually. b) 15-50 days. The incubation ... 6-9 months. d) unclear. The incubation periods for hepatitis D, E, and G are unclear.

Last Answer : a) 45-160 days. Hepatitis B is responsible for more than 200 deaths of healthcare workers annually.

According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status classification a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example. b) P4 Classification P4 patients have an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. c) P1 Classification P1 refers to a normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

Description : According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status ... normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

Last Answer : a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example.

When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient’s arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. b) must be equal in both arms. The pressures in each arm do not have to be equal in order to be considered normal. c) may vary 10 mm Hg or more between arms. Pressures that vary more than 10 mm Hg between arms indicate an abnormal finding. d) may vary, with the higher pressure found in the left arm. The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Description : When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient's arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in ... . The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Last Answer : a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures.

Marine teleosts, undergoing putrefaction, emit sharp characteristic foul odor, which is due to the production of

Description : Marine teleosts, undergoing putrefaction, emit sharp characteristic foul odor, which is due to the production of

Last Answer : Marine teleosts, undergoing putrefaction, emit sharp characteristic foul odor, which is due to the ... Hydrogen sulfide C. Ammonia D. Lactic Acid

Why semen have a foul odor?

Description : Why semen have a foul odor?

Last Answer : Feel Free to Answer

When the nurse observes the patient’s urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

Description : When the nurse observes the patient's urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake ... white urine may indicate infection, pyruria, or in the female patient, the use of vaginal creams.

Last Answer : a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless. b) Increased wakefulness As the body weakens, the patient will sleep more and begin to detach from the environment. c) Increased eating For many patients, refusal of food is an indication that they are ready to die. d) Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Description : For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the ... Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Last Answer : a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless.

The nurse providing education regarding sexually transmitted diseases includes which of the following statements regarding herpes virus 2 (herpes genitalis)? a) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus. Therefore, a cesarean delivery may be performed if the virus recurs near the time of delivery.

Description : The nurse providing education regarding sexually transmitted diseases includes which of the following statements regarding herpes virus 2 (herpes genitalis)? a) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies ... very difficult to kill. Usually, the virus is killed at room temperature by drying.

Last Answer : a) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus. Therefore, a cesarean delivery may be performed if the virus recurs near the time of delivery.

When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, indicates squamous cell carcinoma. b) normal. A class 1 Pap smear is interpreted as normal. c) probably normal. A class 2 Pap smear is interpreted as probably normal. d) suspicious. A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.

Description : When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, ... is interpreted as probably normal. d) suspicious. A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.

Last Answer : a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, indicates squamous cell carcinoma.

The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log every injection of Demerol B. Make fraction dosage like 0.5 ml as 1 ml C. Demerol inventory must be checked every endorsement by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Description : The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log ... by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Last Answer : D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

The nurse anticipates that the physician will perform joint aspiration and wrapping with compression elastic dressing for which of the following musculoskeletal problems? a) Joint effusion The described treatments are used with joint effusions and hemarthrosis.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the physician will perform joint aspiration and wrapping with compression elastic dressing for which of the following musculoskeletal problems? a) Joint effusion The described ... of tissue due to insufficient blood supply and may be associated with steroid use.

Last Answer : a) Joint effusion The described treatments are used with joint effusions and hemarthrosis.

The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Description : The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly ... following a basal skull fracture. The halo sign is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Last Answer : a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

A new biosynthetic dressing used , is used to treat?in the treatment of burns, TransCyte a) burns of indeterminate depth is used to treat burns in which the depth is?TransCyte indeterminate or between superficial and deep partial thickness in depth.

Description : A new biosynthetic dressing used , is used to treat?in the treatment of burns, TransCyte a) burns of indeterminate depth is used to treat burns in which the depth is?TransCyte ... a temporary biosynthetic wound?BCG Matrix covering intended for use with partial-thickness burns and donor sites

Last Answer : a) burns of indeterminate depth is used to treat burns in which the depth is?TransCyte indeterminate or between superficial and deep partial thickness in depth.

Which of the following positions are employed to help reduce intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Avoiding flexion of the neck with use of a cervical collar Use of a cervical collar promotes venous drainage and prevents jugular vein distortion that will increase ICP.

Description : Which of the following positions are employed to help reduce intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Avoiding flexion of the neck with use of a cervical collar Use of a cervical collar promotes venous ... an increase in intra-abdominal pressure and intrathoracic pressure, which can produce a rise in ICP.

Last Answer : a) Avoiding flexion of the neck with use of a cervical collar Use of a cervical collar promotes venous drainage and prevents jugular vein distortion that will increase ICP.

In general, chest drainage tubes are not used for the patient undergoing a) Pneumonectomy Usually, no drains are used for the pneumonectomy patient because the accumulation of fluid in the empty hemithorax prevents mediastinal shift. b) Lobectomy With lobectomy, two chest tubes are usually inserted for drainage, the upper for air and the lower for fluid c) Wedge resection With wedge resection, the pleural cavity usually is drained because of the possibility of an air or blood leak d) Segmentectomy With segmentectomy, drains are usually used because of the possibility of an air or blood leak.

Description : In general, chest drainage tubes are not used for the patient undergoing a) Pneumonectomy Usually, no drains are used for the pneumonectomy patient because the accumulation of fluid in the empty ... With segmentectomy, drains are usually used because of the possibility of an air or blood leak.

Last Answer : a) Pneumonectomy Usually, no drains are used for the pneumonectomy patient because the accumulation of fluid in the empty hemithorax prevents mediastinal shift.

In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

Description : In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result ... a chair. The patient should be taught to avoid bending forward when seated in a chair.

Last Answer : a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

72. The client is to have surgery in 10 days. Lugol’s solution 4 gtts po was prescribed in 10 days. The client asked the nurse for the purpose of the drug. Which response of the nurse is correct?

Description : 72. The client is to have surgery in 10 days. Lugol’s solution 4 gtts po was prescribed in 10 days. The client asked the nurse for the purpose of the drug. Which response of the nurse is correct?

Last Answer : A. It decreases the risk of bleeding

The MOST common staphylococcal infections is: A. A localised purulent infection of the skin B. Diffuse purulent infection of the skin C. Staphylococcal osteomyelitis D. Impetigo

Description : The MOST common staphylococcal infections is: A. A localised purulent infection of the skin B. Diffuse purulent infection of the skin C. Staphylococcal osteomyelitis D. Impetigo

Last Answer : A. A localised purulent infection of the skin

If an indwelling catheter is necessary, nursing interventions that should be implemented to prevent infection include a) performing meticulous perineal care daily with soap and water. Cleanliness of the area will reduce potential for infection.

Description : If an indwelling catheter is necessary, nursing interventions that should be implemented to prevent infection include a) performing meticulous perineal care daily with soap and water. Cleanliness of the area ... it is clamped because it may cause backflow of urine from the tubing into the bladder.

Last Answer : a) performing meticulous perineal care daily with soap and water. Cleanliness of the area will reduce potential for infection.

The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE) a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.

Description : The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE) a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed ... retention before their menstrual period, BSE is best performed when the time for menses is taken into account.

Last Answer : a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.