Which of the following statements describe refractive surgery? a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is considered a cosmetic procedure (to achieve clear vision without the aid of prosthetic devices). It is performed to reshape the cornea for the purpose of correction of all refractive errors.

Which of the following statements describe refractive surgery?
a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to
reshape the cornea.
Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is considered a
cosmetic procedure (to achieve clear vision without the aid of
prosthetic devices). It is performed to reshape the cornea for the
purpose of correction of all refractive errors.
b) Refractive surgery will alter the normal aging of the eye.
Refractive surgery will not alter the normal aging process of the eye.
c) Refractive surgery may be performed on all patients, even if they
have underlying health conditions.
Patients with conditions that are likely to adversely affect corneal
wound healing (corticosteroid use, immunosuppression, elevated IOP)
are not good candidates for the procedure.
d) Refractive surgery may be performed on patients with an abnormal
corneal structure as long as they have a stable refractive error.
The corneal structure must be normal and refractive error stable.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to
reshape the cornea.
Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is considered a
cosmetic procedure (to achieve clear vision without the aid of
prosthetic devices). It is performed to reshape the cornea for the
purpose of correction of all refractive errors.
by

Related questions

The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative lamellar keratitis occurring in the first week after surgery. Studies suggest that since no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

Description : The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, ... after surgery. d) 6 months after surgery. DLK occurs in the first week after surgery.

Last Answer : a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative ... no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

Is the cost for laser eye surgery ever covered by insurance or is it considered elective or cosmetic surgery?

Description : Is the cost for laser eye surgery ever covered by insurance or is it considered elective or cosmetic surgery?

Last Answer : Most insurance companies consider laser eye surgery elective, however, there are some that will cover it minimully.

When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening. b) urgent. Urgent surgery means that the patient requires prompt attention within 24-30 hours. c) required. Required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. d) elective. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Description : When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the ... there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Last Answer : a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.

The nurse instructs the nursing attendant to perform cleansing enema until the return flow is clear. The nursing attendant understood the instruction when she says, “I will A. Call you when the return flow is clear” B. Stop the enema only if the return flow is without formed fecal material” C. Need 1 liter of tap water to have clear return flow” D. Put the client in left Sim’s position to achieve the desired return flow.”

Description : The nurse instructs the nursing attendant to perform cleansing enema until the return flow is clear. The nursing attendant understood the instruction when she says, I will A. Call you when the return flow is ... flow D. Put the client in left Sim's position to achieve the desired return flow.

Last Answer : A. Call you when the return flow is clear”

Prosthetic Devices includes i) Computer technology for vision and hearing ii) Powerful IC iii) MRI Systems iv) None of these

Description : Prosthetic Devices includes i) Computer technology for vision and hearing ii) Powerful IC iii) MRI Systems iv) None of these

Last Answer : i) Computer technology for vision and hearing

Von Willebrand’s disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand’s disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is much more common in men b. A history of spontaneous bleeding is common c. Screening laboratory tests will include a prolonged aPTT with a normal prothrombin time d. Pre-treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23–50% of normal

Description : Von Willebrand's disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand's disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is ... -treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23-50% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: c, d Von Willebrand's factor is an adhesive protein that mediates platelet adhesion to collagen. In addition, it protects and prevents the rapid removal of factor VIII ... platelet aggregation responses to ristocetin. The most reliable source of Von Willebrand's factor is cryoprecipitate

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given several days prior to elective surgery b. The half-life of factor VIII concentrates is less than 24 hours c. A dose of 40–50 IU/kg of factor VIII concentrate should be given prior to the planned surgical procedure d. Factor VIII concentration administration should be given for the first 24 hours after surgery but may then be stopped if no abnormal bleeding has been observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given ... observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, e Although the half-life of factor VIII is 2.9 days in normal individuals, the half-life of factor VIII concentrates is 9 to l8 hours. Levels of 80% to ... infection in the hemophilia population. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

The first dressing change for an autografted area is performed a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent infection may indicate infection and should be reported to the surgeon immediately.

Description : The first dressing change for an autografted area is performed a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent ... is noted. Sanguineous drainage on a dressing covering an autograft is an anticipated abnormal observation postoperatively.

Last Answer : a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent infection may indicate infection and should be reported to the surgeon immediately.

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

When the patient tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200, and asks what that means, the nurse informs the patient that a person with 20/200 vision a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

Description : When the patient tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200, and asks what that means, the nurse informs the patient that a person with 20/200 vision a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person ... 20/20 line, the person of normal vision will be standing at a distance of 20 feet from the chart.

Last Answer : a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

The nurse teaches the patient about diabetes including which of the following statements? a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood glucose levels are well controlled, the potential for complications of diabetes is reduced.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient about diabetes including which of the following statements? a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood ... be able to resume previous methods for control of diabetes when the stress is resolved.

Last Answer : a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood glucose levels are well controlled, the potential for complications of diabetes is reduced.

Is there a cosmetic surgery procedure where they close your belly button?

Description : Is there a cosmetic surgery procedure where they close your belly button?

Last Answer : no

The nurse providing education regarding sexually transmitted diseases includes which of the following statements regarding herpes virus 2 (herpes genitalis)? a) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus. Therefore, a cesarean delivery may be performed if the virus recurs near the time of delivery.

Description : The nurse providing education regarding sexually transmitted diseases includes which of the following statements regarding herpes virus 2 (herpes genitalis)? a) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies ... very difficult to kill. Usually, the virus is killed at room temperature by drying.

Last Answer : a) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus. Therefore, a cesarean delivery may be performed if the virus recurs near the time of delivery.

Which of the following statements(s) is/are true concerning human energy requirement? a. In normal subjects, less than 5% of basal energy requirement is spent on cardiac output and the work of breathing b. Mechanical ventilation can decrease the energy expenditure for normal respiration c. For a 70 kg male, average resting energy consumption is almost 1500 kcal/day d. Similar increases in energy expenditures are associated with elective surgery and trauma or thermal injury

Description : Which of the following statements(s) is/are true concerning human energy requirement? a. In normal subjects, less than 5% of basal energy requirement is spent on cardiac output and the ... d. Similar increases in energy expenditures are associated with elective surgery and trauma or thermal injury

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Basal energy requirements are measured with the subject at rest when no external work is being done; the energy is used mainly for transport and synthetic work within cells. A ... average-sized adult who sustains a major burn rarely may require more than 3500 kcal/day for maintenance

Operational audits generally have been conducted by internal and COA auditors, but may be performed by certified public accountants. A primary purpose of an operational audit is to provide: a. A measure of management performance in meeting organizational goalsb. The results of internal examinations of financial and accounting matters to a company's top-level management. c. Aid to the independent-auditor, who is conducting the examination of the financial statements. d. A means of assurance that internal accounting controls are functioning as planned.

Description : Operational audits generally have been conducted by internal and COA auditors, but may be performed by certified public accountants. A primary purpose of an operational audit is to provide: ... statements. d. A means of assurance that internal accounting controls are functioning as planned

Last Answer : A measure of management performance in meeting organizational goals

Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called ... of tissue by freezing. c) Perineorrhaphy Perineorrhaphy refers to sutural repair of perineal lacerations.

Last Answer : a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

72. The client is to have surgery in 10 days. Lugol’s solution 4 gtts po was prescribed in 10 days. The client asked the nurse for the purpose of the drug. Which response of the nurse is correct?

Description : 72. The client is to have surgery in 10 days. Lugol’s solution 4 gtts po was prescribed in 10 days. The client asked the nurse for the purpose of the drug. Which response of the nurse is correct?

Last Answer : A. It decreases the risk of bleeding

Which of the following statements reflects information to be included when teaching the patient about plantar fasciitis? a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. Management also includes wearing shoes with support and cushioning to relieve pain, orthotic devices (e.g., heel cups, arch supports), and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Description : Which of the following statements reflects information to be included when teaching the patient about plantar fasciitis? a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. ... Complications of plantar fasciitis include neuromuscular damage and decreased ankle range of motion.

Last Answer : a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. Management also includes wearing shoes with support and cushioning to relieve pain, orthotic devices (e.g., heel cups, arch supports), and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

A staff nurse was found charting blood glucose result without actually doing the procedure. What is the appropriate initial action of the senior nurse? A. Write and submit an explanation and reprimand as necessary B. Go on leave without pay C. Write an incident report D. Explain to the patient

Description : A staff nurse was found charting blood glucose result without actually doing the procedure. What is the appropriate initial action of the senior nurse? A. Write and submit an explanation and reprimand as necessary B. Go on leave without pay C. Write an incident report D. Explain to the patient

Last Answer : A. Write and submit an explanation and reprimand as necessary

Which of the following terms is used to describe the opening of the urethra on the dorsum of the penis? a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis and is usually repaired through plastic surgery when the boy is very young.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe the opening of the urethra on the dorsum of the penis? a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral ... Urethritis Urethritis refers to inflammation of the urethra and is commonly associated with sexually transmitted disease.

Last Answer : a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis and is usually repaired through plastic surgery when the boy is very young.

Is it possible to have Lasik eye surgery to achieve less-than-perfect vision?

Description : Is it possible to have Lasik eye surgery to achieve less-than-perfect vision?

Last Answer : I believe so; a doctor probably wouldn’t recommend it, it could be a bit dangerous

The part of the eye having the largest refractive index is - (1) cornea (2) aqueous humor (3) lens (4) vitreous humor

Description : The part of the eye having the largest refractive index is - (1) cornea (2) aqueous humor (3) lens (4) vitreous humor

Last Answer : (3) lens Explanation: Like a camera, the human eye uses a convex lens system to form a small, inverted, real image of an object in front of it. Lens is the part of the eye having the largest refractive index.

The part of the eye having the larges refractive index is : (1) cornea (2) aqueous humor (3) lens (4) vitreous humor

Description : The part of the eye having the larges refractive index is : (1) cornea (2) aqueous humor (3) lens (4) vitreous humor

Last Answer : (3) lens Explanation: The cornea represents the strongest part of the refracting power of the eye, providing about 80% of the power of the system. The index of refraction of the cornea is about 1. ... into the watery fluid known as the aqueous humor which has an index of refraction of about 1.336.

The cornea: a. is thicker centrally than peripherally b. contains 10,000 endothelium cells per square mm at birth c.has an acellular collagenous stroma d. contain Descemet's membrane is produced by the endothelium e. has a refractive index of 1.38

Description : The cornea: a. is thicker centrally than peripherally b. contains 10,000 endothelium cells per square mm at birth c.has an acellular collagenous stroma d. contain Descemet's membrane is produced by the endothelium e. has a refractive index of 1.38

Last Answer : contain Descemet's membrane is produced by the endothelium

The part of the eye having the larges refractive index is : (1) cornea (2) aqueous humor (3) lens (4) vitreous humor

Description : The part of the eye having the larges refractive index is : (1) cornea (2) aqueous humor (3) lens (4) vitreous humor

Last Answer : lens

When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient’s serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves). b) Hypercalcemia Hypercalcemia would likely be demonstrated by asystole. c) Hypomagnesemia Hypomagenesemia would likely be demonstrated by hypotension, lethargy, and vasodilation. d) Hyponatremia Hyponatremia would likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation

Description : When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient's serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia ... likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation

Last Answer : a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves).

Which of the following statements reflect what is known about the Ebola and Marburg viruses? a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa. The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa, or who has handled animals or animal carcasses from those parts of the world.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect what is known about the Ebola and Marburg viruses? a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after ... fever, rash, and encephalitis which progress rapidly to profound hemorrhage, organ destruction, and shock.

Last Answer : a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa. The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, ... Asia or Africa, or who has handled animals or animal carcasses from those parts of the world.

Mark the incorrect option a) The police officer who is not a pensioner may not be employed as an ED agent without the previous sanction of the DG b) Disabled ex-servicemen who are in receipt of disability pension and are not disqualified for further service in civil dept may also be considered as ED sub or branch postmaster c) No person holding an elective office shall be considered for the post of an ED agent. d) None of these

Description : Mark the incorrect option a) The police officer who is not a pensioner may not be employed as an ED agent without the previous sanction of the DG b) Disabled ex-servicemen who are in receipt of ... holding an elective office shall be considered for the post of an ED agent. d) None of these

Last Answer : d) None of these

Ossiculoplasty is defined as a) surgical reconstruction of the middle ear bones. Ossiculoplasty is performed to restore hearing.

Description : Ossiculoplasty is defined as a) surgical reconstruction of the middle ear bones. Ossiculoplasty is performed to restore hearing. b) surgical repair of the eardrum. Surgical repair of the eardrum is ... . Tympanotomy or myringotomy is the term used to refer to incision into the tympanic membrane.

Last Answer : a) surgical reconstruction of the middle ear bones. Ossiculoplasty is performed to restore hearing.

Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor’s office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid for analysis. It has been shown to identify atypical cells in this population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

Description : Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline ... risk for benign proliferative breast disease; it is not specific for women with breast implants.

Last Answer : a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid ... population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE) a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.

Description : The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE) a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed ... retention before their menstrual period, BSE is best performed when the time for menses is taken into account.

Last Answer : a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.

Which of the following methods is the best method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach? a) X-ray Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is most reliable. b) Observation of gastric aspirate Gastric fluid may be grassy green, brown, clear, or odorless while an aspirate from the lungs may be off-white or tan. Hence, checking aspirate is not the best method of determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach.

Description : Which of the following methods is the best method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach? a) X-ray Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is most reliable. ... for air bubbles is not a reliable method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach.

Last Answer : a) X-ray Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is most reliable.

What is the purpose of the SEE method to prevent the writer from making grammatical errors to aid the writer in revising his or her essay for unity to assist the writer in narrowing his or her topic t?

Description : What is the purpose of the SEE method to prevent the writer from making grammatical errors to aid the writer in revising his or her essay for unity to assist the writer in narrowing his or her topic t?

Last Answer : Need answer

An auditor is required to obtain a basic understanding of the client's internal control to plan the audit. The auditor may then decide to perform tests of controls on alinternal control procedures a. That would aid in preventing fraud. b. Documented in the flowchart. c. Considered to be weaknesses that might allow errors to enter the accounting system. d. Considered to be strengths for which the auditor desires further reduction in the assessed level of control risk.l

Description : An auditor is required to obtain a basic understanding of the client's internal control to plan the audit. The auditor may then decide to perform tests of controls on all internal control ... to be strengths for which the auditor desires further reduction in the assessed level of control risk.

Last Answer : Considered to be strengths for which the auditor desires further reduction in the assessed level of control risk.

Would you choose to have elective surgery that could drastically improve your life, yet significantly impact your appearance and lifestyle?

Description : Would you choose to have elective surgery that could drastically improve your life, yet significantly impact your appearance and lifestyle?

Last Answer : I think that I would try the implant so you can see what difference it makes in your life. To your temperament. To your experience of the world around you. If you elected not to attach the device, you could.

What are the risks of elective surgery?

Description : What are the risks of elective surgery?

Last Answer : You should ask your doctor and surgeon about the risks well before you have the surgery. Don't wait until you are at the facility to have the procedure to ask. Also, look up the procedure online. ... , but you should be able to research the condition and surgery online to find out about the risks.

The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count (CBC), including platelet count. C. Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Description : The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count ( ... (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Last Answer : Answer: A DISCUSSION: The evaluation of most patients scheduled for elective surgery who do not have a history of significant bleeding disorders is somewhat controversial. An adequate history and ... suspected of having qualitative defects of platelet function (e.g., von Willebrand's disease)

Which of the following is/are not associated with increased likelihood of infection after major elective surgery? A. Age over 70 years. B. Chronic malnutrition. C. Controlled diabetes mellitus. D. Long-term steroid use. E. Infection at a remote body site.

Description : Which of the following is/are not associated with increased likelihood of infection after major elective surgery? A. Age over 70 years. B. Chronic malnutrition. C. Controlled diabetes mellitus. D. Long-term steroid use. E. Infection at a remote body site.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Controlled diabetes mellitus has been shown repeatedly not to be associated with increased likelihood of incisional infection provided one avoids operations on body parts ... site-are well-recognized adverse predictive factors and are identified in tables within the chapter

Most benign cause of postmenopausal bleeding Cervical polyp Atrophic vaginitis 112-Pt came by hx os sudden eye pain burning vision photophobia and by ex. Small pupil and keretic cell on cornea and cell in humorus Ttt Cyclospoine + corticosteroid

Description : Most benign cause of postmenopausal bleeding Cervical polyp Atrophic vaginitis 112-Pt came by hx os sudden eye pain burning vision photophobia and by ex. Small pupil and keretic cell on cornea and cell in humorus Ttt Cyclospoine + corticosteroid

Last Answer : Cyclospoine + corticosteroid

Which of the following statements describe the pathophysiology of post-polio syndrome? a) The exact cause is unknown, but aging or muscle overuse is suspected. The exact cause of post-polio syndrome is not known but researchers suspect that with aging or muscle overuse the neurons not destroyed originally by the poliovirus are unable to continue generating axon sprouts.

Description : Which of the following statements describe the pathophysiology of post-polio syndrome? a) The exact cause is unknown, but aging or muscle overuse is suspected. The exact cause of post-polio syndrome is not ... , high-fat diet in polio survivors. The exact cause of post-polio syndrome is not known.

Last Answer : a) The exact cause is unknown, but aging or muscle overuse is suspected. The exact cause of post-polio syndrome is not known but researchers suspect that with aging or muscle overuse the neurons not destroyed originally by the poliovirus are unable to continue generating axon sprouts.

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Regarding emergency procedures at the burn scene, the nurse teaches which of the following guidelines? a) Never wrap burn victims in ice. Such procedure may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in patients with large burns.

Description : Regarding emergency procedures at the burn scene, the nurse teaches which of the following guidelines? a) Never wrap burn victims in ice. Such procedure may worsen the tissue damage and lead to ... . Such procedures may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in patients with large burns.

Last Answer : a) Never wrap burn victims in ice. Such procedure may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in patients with large burns.

Of the following bariatric surgical procedures, which is the best procedure for long-term weight loss? a) Roux-en-Y The Roux-en-Y gastric bypass is the recommended procedure for longterm weight loss. In this procedure, a horizontal row of staples creates a stomach pouch with a 1-cm stoma that is anastomosed with a portion of distal jejunum, creating a gastroenterostomy.

Description : Of the following bariatric surgical procedures, which is the best procedure for long-term weight loss? a) Roux-en-Y The Roux-en-Y gastric bypass is the recommended procedure ... This procedure, which resulted in significant complications, has been largely replaced by gastric restriction procedures

Last Answer : a) Roux-en-Y The Roux-en-Y gastric bypass is the recommended procedure for longterm weight loss. In this procedure, a horizontal row of staples creates a stomach pouch with a 1-cm stoma that is anastomosed with a portion of distal jejunum, creating a gastroenterostomy.

98. Phlebotomy was ordered as part of the therapy. You instructed the client and emphasized that the procedure can be repeated. The client inquired, “What is the primary aim of the procedure?” Your appropriate response is

Description : 98. Phlebotomy was ordered as part of the therapy. You instructed the client and emphasized that the procedure can be repeated. The client inquired, “What is the primary aim of the procedure?” Your appropriate response is

Last Answer : D. “It keeps the hematocrit within normal range.”

83. The scrub nurse and circulating nurse also counted the sharps and miscellaneous items like instruments before the procedure. Continuous accounting for these items can primarily

Description : 83. The scrub nurse and circulating nurse also counted the sharps and miscellaneous items like instruments before the procedure. Continuous accounting for these items can primarily

Last Answer : C. Minimize injuries and/or liabilities to sterile surgical team

81. The scrub and circulating nurse should perform sponge count during which phases of an abdominal hysterectomy procedure? 1. Before the procedure 2. Before closing the endometrium 3. Before closing the peritoneum 4. At the skin closure 5. When the scrub nurse goes for a lunch break

Description : 81. The scrub and circulating nurse should perform sponge count during which phases of an abdominal hysterectomy procedure? 1. Before the procedure 2. Before closing the endometrium 3. Before closing the peritoneum 4. At the skin closure 5. When the scrub nurse goes for a lunch break

Last Answer : A. All except 5

To confirm the diagnosis of cholecystitis, the attending physician ordered a procedure that can detect gallstones as small as 1 – 2 cm and inflammation. The nurse would prepare the client for which specific diagnostic procedure? A. Cholangiography B. Ultrasonography C. Gall bladder series D. Oral cholecystogram

Description : To confirm the diagnosis of cholecystitis, the attending physician ordered a procedure that can detect gallstones as small as 1 - 2 cm and inflammation. The nurse would prepare ... specific diagnostic procedure? A. Cholangiography B. Ultrasonography C. Gall bladder series D. Oral cholecystogram

Last Answer : B. Ultrasonography