During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted. b) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer
extend into the subcutaneous tissue?
a) Stage III
Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent
tissues is noted.
b) Stage IV
A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure,
including the muscle and possibly the bone.
c) Stage II
A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or
dermis.
d) Stage I
A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue
swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Stage III
Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent
tissues is noted.
by

Related questions

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. b) Stage III A stage III ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone.

Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the ... growth of the fragments of a fractured bone in a faulty position, forming an imperfect union.

Last Answer : a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

Of the three layers of the skin, which is the thick, fat-containing layer? A. dermis B. epidermis C. epithelium D. subcutaneous tissue

Description : Of the three layers of the skin, which is the thick, fat-containing layer? A. dermis B. epidermis C. epithelium D. subcutaneous tissue

Last Answer : Ans: D

A layer of dead skin cells is found in the: a) subcutaneous tissue b) dermis c) epidermis d) no dead cells are in the skin

Description : A layer of dead skin cells is found in the: a) subcutaneous tissue b) dermis c) epidermis d) no dead cells are in the skin 

Last Answer : ANSWER: C -- EPIDERMIS

Labourers who do hard manual labour develop thick skin on their palms and soles due to : (1) thick epidermis (2) thick dermis (3) thick subcutaneous tissue (4) All of these

Description : Labourers who do hard manual labour develop thick skin on their palms and soles due to : (1) thick epidermis (2) thick dermis (3) thick subcutaneous tissue (4) All of these

Last Answer : All of these

In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient’s residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions (morning and evening)? a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

Description : In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient's residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions ... urine that is greater than 100 cc indicates that the suprapubic catheter cannot be discontinued.

Last Answer : a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

An ulcer is: A. Shallow Epidermal defect B. Break in epidermis with exposure of dermis C. Not good for coffee drinkers D. A primary problem

Description : An ulcer is: A. Shallow Epidermal defect B. Break in epidermis with exposure of dermis C. Not good for coffee drinkers D. A primary problem

Last Answer : Ans: B

During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize. b) Promotion During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods. c) Initiation During this first step, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Description : During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and ... of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Last Answer : a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize.

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Skin becomes wrinkled in the old age due to (a) loss of elastic tissue in the dermis (b) considerable slag in the rate of dividing cells in the stratum germinativum (c) gradual loss of elasticity in the subcutaneous layer (d) all of these

Description : Skin becomes wrinkled in the old age due to (a) loss of elastic tissue in the dermis (b) considerable slag in the rate of dividing cells in the stratum germinativum (c) gradual loss of elasticity in the subcutaneous layer (d) all of these

Last Answer : Ans:(b)

A purulent inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue A. Erythema B. Ecchymosis C. Cellulitis

Description : A purulent inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue A. Erythema B. Ecchymosis C. Cellulitis

Last Answer : Ans: C

A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain of the fluid, which will likely demonstrate multiple bacteria including predominantly gram-positive rods b. A CT scan is indicated in a stable patient to define the extent of the disease c. Broad spectrum antibiotics followed with prompt extensive debridement is indicated d. A safe guideline is to resect infected necrotic tissue so that a several centimeter margin of grossly normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Description : A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain ... normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The presence of severe perineal infection (referred to as Fournier gangrene when this process involves the perineum and scrotum in males) is associated with a ... often provides improved wound care and patient management, although it is not invariably a positive outcome

When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of a) Paget’s disease. Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of nipple and areola. b) acute mastitis. Acute mastitis is demonstrated by nipple cracks or abrasions along with reddened and warm breast skin and tenderness.

Description : When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of a) Paget's disease. Paget's disease ... the breast and demonstrates an orange peel apearance of breast skin with enlargement of skin pores.

Last Answer : a) Paget’s disease. Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of nipple and areola.

The preferred route of administration of medication in the most acute care situations is which of the following routes? a) Intravenous The IV route is the preferred parenteral route in most acute care situations because it is much more comfortable for the patient, and peak serum levels and pain relief occur more rapidly and reliably. b) Epidural Epidural administration is used to control postoperative and chronic pain. c) Subcutaneous Subcutaneous administration results in slow absorption of medication. d) Intramuscular Intramuscular administration of medication is absorbed more slowly than intravenously administered medication.

Description : The preferred route of administration of medication in the most acute care situations is which of the following routes? a) Intravenous The IV route is the preferred ... ) Intramuscular Intramuscular administration of medication is absorbed more slowly than intravenously administered medication.

Last Answer : a) Intravenous The IV route is the preferred parenteral route in most acute care situations because it is much more comfortable for the patient, and peak serum levels and pain relief occur more rapidly and reliably.

Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the patient breathes in the anesthetic mixture and experiences warmth, dizziness, and a feeling of detachment. c) II Stage II is the excitement stage, which may be characterized by struggling, singing, laughing, or crying. d) IV Stage IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Description : Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the ... IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Last Answer : a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours.

When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

Description : When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. ... the result of increased interstitial fluid and associated with disorders such as congestive heart failure.

Last Answer : a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient’s lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular. b) The ulcer is very painful to the patient, even though superficial. Superficial venous insufficiency ulcers cause minimal pain. c) The ulcer base is pale to black. The base of a venous insufficiency ulcer shows beefy red to yellow fibrinous color. d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Description : Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient's lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ... d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Last Answer : a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of ... occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

Which of the following terms is used to refer to protrusion of abdominal organs through the surgical incision? a) Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency. b) Hernia A hernia is a weakness in the abdominal wall. c) Dehiscence Dehiscence refers to partial or complete separation of wound edges. d) Erythema Erythema refers to redness of tissue.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to refer to protrusion of abdominal organs through the surgical incision? a) Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency. b) Hernia A hernia is a weakness ... partial or complete separation of wound edges. d) Erythema Erythema refers to redness of tissue.

Last Answer : a) Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency.

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes. b) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. c) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger. d) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to ... the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Last Answer : a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes.

Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.

Description : Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft ... and the external soft tissue. Fascia is fibrous tissue that covers, supports, and separates muscles.

Last Answer : a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.

Antimicrobial barrier?Acticoat dressings used in the treatment of burn wounds can be left in place for five days. a) antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in place for?Acticoat up to five days thus helping to decrease discomfort to the patient, decrease costs of dressing supplies, and decrease nursing time involved in burn dressing changes.

Description : Antimicrobial barrier?Acticoat dressings used in the treatment of burn wounds can be left in place for five days. a) antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in place for?Acticoat up to five days ... ) two days. antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in?Acticoat place for up to five days.

Last Answer : a) antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in place for?Acticoat up to five days thus helping to decrease discomfort to the patient, decrease costs of dressing supplies, and decrease nursing time involved in burn dressing changes.

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

When the patient with known angina pectoris complains that he is experiencing chest pain more frequently even at rest, the period of pain is longer, and it takes less stress for the pain to occur, the nurse recognizes that the patient is describing a) unstable angina. Unstable angina is also called crescendo or pre-infarction angina and indicates the need for a change in treatment.

Description : When the patient with known angina pectoris complains that he is experiencing chest pain more frequently even at rest, the period of pain is longer, and it takes less stress for the ... or refractory angina produces severe, incapacitating chest pain that does not respond to conventional treatment.

Last Answer : a) unstable angina. Unstable angina is also called crescendo or pre-infarction angina and indicates the need for a change in treatment.

Reconstitution of the epithelial barrier (epithelialization) begins within hours of the initial injury. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the process of epithelialization? a. Bacteria, protein exudate, and necrotic tissue all will compromise this process b. Epithelial cells exhibit contact proliferation c. Epithelialization occurs only from the margins of the wound d. Visible scarring can occur only when the injury extends deeper than the superficial dermis

Description : Reconstitution of the epithelial barrier (epithelialization) begins within hours of the initial injury. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the process of epithelialization? a. ... d. Visible scarring can occur only when the injury extends deeper than the superficial dermis

Last Answer : Answer: a, d The initial step of epithelialization involves epithelial cells from the basal layer of the wound edge flattening and migrating across the wound, completing wound coverage within 24- ... abrasions and burns may scar significantly. Whenever the dermis is incised, a scar will form

Which of the following connective tissue disorders is characterized by insoluble collagen being formed and accumulating excessively in the tissues? a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in death.

Description : Which of the following connective tissue disorders is characterized by insoluble collagen being formed and accumulating excessively in the tissues? a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the ... In polymyalgia rheumatic, immunoglobulin is deposited in the walls of inflamed temporal arteries.

Last Answer : a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in death.

Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis Lymphangitis is an acute inflammation of the lymphatic channels. c) Lymphedema Lymphedema is demonstrated by swelling of tissues in the extremities because of an increased quantity of lymph that results from an obstruction of lymphatic vessels. d) Elephantiasis Elephantiasis refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis ... refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Last Answer : a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes.

The vascular layer of skin is the A. dermis B. epidermis C. stratum corneum unguis D. hypodermis

Description : The vascular layer of skin is the A. dermis B. epidermis C. stratum corneum unguis D. hypodermis

Last Answer : Ans: A

The outermost layer of skin is the A. dermis B. endodermis C. epidermis D. hypodermis

Description : The outermost layer of skin is the A. dermis B. endodermis C. epidermis D. hypodermis

Last Answer : Ans: C

The outermost layer of skin is the-----? A. endodermis B. dermis C. epidermis (Answer) D. hypodermis

Description : The outermost layer of skin is the-----? A. endodermis B. dermis C. epidermis (Answer) D. hypodermis

Last Answer : C. epidermis (Answer)

The outer most layer of skin is called the: a) endodermis b) mesoderm c) epidermis d) dermis

Description : The outer most layer of skin is called the: a) endodermis b) mesoderm c) epidermis d) dermis

Last Answer : ANSWER: C -- EPIDERMIS 

According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status classification a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example. b) P4 Classification P4 patients have an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. c) P1 Classification P1 refers to a normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

Description : According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status ... normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

Last Answer : a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site b) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair during which the new bone is reorganized into the bone’s former structural arrangement. c) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion ... the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Last Answer : a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site

Consider the following statements. (i) Fender is the cushion provided on the face of the jetty for ships to come in contact, (ii) Slip is the space of water area between two adjacent piers where ships are berthed, (iii) Pier head is a structure constructed near the tip of break water near the harbour entrance. Of the statements (A) (i) and (ii) are correct (B) (ii) and (iii) are correct (C) (i) and (iii) are correct (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Description : Consider the following statements. (i) Fender is the cushion provided on the face of the jetty for ships to come in contact, (ii) Slip is the space of water area between two adjacent piers where ships are berthed, ... correct (C) (i) and (iii) are correct (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Last Answer : (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

A patient presents with long time history of knee pain suggestive of osteoarthritis. Now he complains of unilateral lower limb swelling and on examination there is +ve pedal & tibial pitting edema. What is the next appropriate investigation? a. CXR b. ECG c. Echocardiography d. Duplex ultrasound of lower limb

Description : A patient presents with long time history of knee pain suggestive of osteoarthritis. Now he complains of unilateral lower limb swelling and on examination there is +ve pedal & tibial pitting edema ... appropriate investigation? a. CXR b. ECG c. Echocardiography d. Duplex ultrasound of lower limb

Last Answer : d. Duplex ultrasound of lower limb

A patient comes with a firm, painless swelling of lower lobe of parotid which has grown progressively for the past year. He complains of paresthesia for the past 2 weeks. This is most likely to be: a. Pleomorphic adenoma. b. Carcinoma of the parotid. c. Lymphoma of parotid.

Description : A patient comes with a firm, painless swelling of lower lobe of parotid which has grown progressively for the past year. He complains of paresthesia for the past 2 weeks. This is most likely to be: a. Pleomorphic adenoma. b. Carcinoma of the parotid. c. Lymphoma of parotid.

Last Answer : a. Pleomorphic adenoma.

A patient comes with a firm, painless swelling of lower lobe of parotid which has grown progressively for the past year. He complains of paresthesia for the past 2 weeks. This is most likely to be: A. Pleomorphic adenoma B. Carcinoma of the parotid C. Lymphoma of parotid

Description : A patient comes with a firm, painless swelling of lower lobe of parotid which has grown progressively for the past year. He complains of paresthesia for the past 2 weeks. This is most likely to be: A. Pleomorphic adenoma B. Carcinoma of the parotid C. Lymphoma of parotid

Last Answer : A. Pleomorphic adenoma

The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief. b) vomiting. Vomiting is uncommon in the patient with duodenal ulcer. c) hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is less likely in the patient with duodenal ulcer than the patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Description : The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain ... patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Last Answer : a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the multiorgan failure syndrome (MOFS)? a. Changes in the splanchnic and pulmonary microcirculation are critical to the development of MOFS b. Tissue fixed microphages, including the liver Kupffer cell, have little role in the development of MOFS c. MOFS represents systemic consequences of loss of homeostatic control of local inflammation and microcirculatory hypoperfusion d. The nature of MOFS is highly dependent upon the etiology of the underlying problem

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the multiorgan failure syndrome (MOFS)? a. Changes in the splanchnic and pulmonary microcirculation are critical to the development of MOFS ... d. The nature of MOFS is highly dependent upon the etiology of the underlying problem

Last Answer : Answer: a, c The nature of multiorgan failure syndrome (MOFS) is that of a diffuse cellular injury, developing systemically as a consequence of losing homeostatic control of local ... of microorganism. In noninfectious cases, the response also appears independent of the specific underlying cause

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve. b) Peroneal The peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes. c) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. d) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation ... The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Last Answer : a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve.

Which of the following tissues contain significant collagen useful for placing sutures to allow the prolonged tension necessary to maintain tissue approximation? a. Dermis b. Intestinal submucosa c. Muscular fascia d. Blood vessel wall

Description : Which of the following tissues contain significant collagen useful for placing sutures to allow the prolonged tension necessary to maintain tissue approximation? a. Dermis b. Intestinal submucosa c. Muscular fascia d. Blood vessel wall

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d It takes at least three weeks for collagen to undergo sufficient remodeling and cross linking to attain moderate strength. Since most skin sutures are removed at one to ... , Scarpa's fascia, and blood vessel wall represent a partial list of tissues with high collagen content

A 8 years-old patient has 3 first premolars erupted and a swelling on the ridge of the un-erupted premolar. X ray shows a fully developed crown and ¾ roots development with no other pathology. What is your management: A. Remove the dentigerous cyst B. Soft tissues recision to allow eruption C. Soft tissues recision accompanied with orthodontic appliance to help with eruption

Description : A 8 years-old patient has 3 first premolars erupted and a swelling on the ridge of the un-erupted premolar. X ray shows a fully developed crown and ¾ roots development with no ... recision to allow eruption C. Soft tissues recision accompanied with orthodontic appliance to help with eruption

Last Answer : C. Soft tissues recision accompanied with orthodontic appliance to help with eruption

Scar formation is part of the normal healing process following injury. Which of the following tissues has the ability to heal without scar formation? a. Liver b. Skin c. Bone d. Muscle

Description : Scar formation is part of the normal healing process following injury. Which of the following tissues has the ability to heal without scar formation? a. Liver b. Skin c. Bone d. Muscle

Last Answer : Answer: c Every tissue in the body undergoes reparative processes after injury. Bone has the unique ability to heal without scar and liver has the potential to regenerate parenchyma, the only organ ... scar (cirrhosis) as well. With these exceptions, all other mature human tissues heal with scar

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Description : When the nurse reviews the physician's progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle's sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the ... CSF) from the patient's nose. Escape of CSF from the patient's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

Last Answer : a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Stage 3 of breast development, according to Tanner, occurs when a) the areola (a darker tissue ring around the nipple) develops. Stage 3 also involves further enlargement of breast tissue.

Description : Stage 3 of breast development, according to Tanner, occurs when a) the areola (a darker tissue ring around the nipple) develops. Stage 3 also involves further enlargement of breast tissue. b) ... In stage 5, the female demonstrates continued development of a larger breast with a single contour.

Last Answer : a) the areola (a darker tissue ring around the nipple) develops. Stage 3 also involves further enlargement of breast tissue.

A 12 years-old girl complains of sore mouth, she has painful cervical lymphadenitis and a temperature of 39°c, oral examination shows numerous yellow grey lesions. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis: A. Measles (koplick spots are present next to the molars usually) B. Erythema multiform se da general mentor hombres mas de 20 años en labios C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Description : A 12 years-old girl complains of sore mouth, she has painful cervical lymphadenitis and a temperature of 39°c, oral examination shows numerous yellow grey lesions. What is the MOST LIKELY ... mentor hombres mas de 20 años en labios C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Last Answer : C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis

Through which of the following activities does the patient learn to consciously contract excretory sphincters and control voiding cues? a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge incontinence may gain bladder control through biofeedback. b) Kegel exercises Kegel exercises are pelvic floor exercises that strengthen the pubococcygeus muscle. c) Habit training Habit training is used to try to keep the patient dry by strictly adhering to a toileting schedule and may be successful with stress, urge, or functional incontinence. d) Bladder training Habit training is a type of bladder training.

Description : Through which of the following activities does the patient learn to consciously contract excretory sphincters and control voiding cues? a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge ... functional incontinence. d) Bladder training Habit training is a type of bladder training.

Last Answer : a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge incontinence may gain bladder control through biofeedback.