Which of the following statements describe the pathophysiology of post-polio syndrome? a) The exact cause is unknown, but aging or muscle overuse is suspected. The exact cause of post-polio syndrome is not known but researchers suspect that with aging or muscle overuse the neurons not destroyed originally by the poliovirus are unable to continue generating axon sprouts.

Which of the following statements describe the
pathophysiology of post-polio syndrome?
a) The exact cause is unknown, but aging or muscle overuse is
suspected.
The exact cause of post-polio syndrome is not known but researchers
suspect that with aging or muscle overuse the neurons not destroyed
originally by the poliovirus are unable to continue generating axon
sprouts.
b) The exact cause is unknown, but latent poliovirus is suspected.
The exact cause of post-polio syndrome is not known.
c) Post-polio syndrome is caused by an autoimmune response.
The exact cause of post-polio syndrome is not known.
d) Post-polio syndrome is caused by long-term intake of a low-protein,
high-fat diet in polio survivors.
The exact cause of post-polio syndrome is not known.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) The exact cause is unknown, but aging or muscle overuse is
suspected.
The exact cause of post-polio syndrome is not known but researchers
suspect that with aging or muscle overuse the neurons not destroyed
originally by the poliovirus are unable to continue generating axon
sprouts.
by

Related questions

Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome? a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for this syndrome and therefore nursing plays a pivotal role in the team approach to assisting patients and families in dealing with the symptoms of progressive loss of muscle strength and significant fatigue. Nursing interventions are aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome? a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, ... and cold are most appropriate because these patients tend to have strong reactions to medications.

Last Answer : a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for ... loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

What percentage of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now estimated to have developed post-polio syndrome? a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s, many now elderly, are developing new symptoms of weakness, fatigue and musculoskeletal pain. It is estimated that between 60% and 80% of the 640,000 polio survivors are experiencing the phenomenon known as post-polio syndrome.

Description : What percentage of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now estimated to have developed post-polio syndrome? a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s ... 80% of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now experiencing post-polio syndrome.

Last Answer : a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s, many now elderly, are developing new symptoms of weakness, fatigue and musculoskeletal pain. It is estimated that between 60% and 80% of the 640,000 polio survivors are experiencing the phenomenon known as post-polio syndrome.

Bone density testing in patients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated a) low bone mass and osteoporosis. Bone density testing in patients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated low bone mass and osteoporosis. Thus, the importance of identifying risks, preventing falls, and treating osteoporosis must be discussed with patients and their families.

Description : Bone density testing in patients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated a) low bone mass and osteoporosis. Bone density testing in patients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated low bone ... density testing in patients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated low bone mass and osteoporosis.

Last Answer : a) low bone mass and osteoporosis. Bone density testing in patients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated low bone mass and osteoporosis. Thus, the importance of identifying risks, preventing falls, and treating osteoporosis must be discussed with patients and their families.

Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs. b) Labile Labile cells multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes. c) Permanent Permanent cells include neurons — the nerve cell bodies, not their axons. Destruction of a neuron causes permanent loss, but axons may regenerate. d) Epithelial Epithelial cells are a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Description : Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the ... a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Last Answer : a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs.

Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Description : Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more ... Decrease in normal skin flora Cutaneous signs of HIV disease appear as immune function deteriorates.

Last Answer : a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Which of the following statements reflect current research regarding the utilization of non-pharmacological measures in the management of burn pain? a) Music therapy may provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. Researchers have found that music affects both the physiologic and psychological aspects of the pain experience. Music diverts the patient’s attention away from the painful stimulus. Music may also provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. It also allows for patient self-expression.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect current research regarding the utilization of non-pharmacological measures in the management of burn pain? a) Music therapy may provide reality orientation, distraction, ... of burn pain. Pet therapy has not proven effective in the management of burn pain.

Last Answer : a) Music therapy may provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. Researchers have found that music affects both the physiologic and psychological aspects of the pain experience ... orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. It also allows for patient self-expression.

Before the nurse can develop a relevant care plan, the nurse understands that in post-laryngectomy, the trachea and the esophagus are permanently separated. Therefore, which of the following will the nurse expect? A. No risk of aspiration during swallowing; speech is lost B. Normal speaking, breathing and swallowing are restored C. Unable to communicate with difficulty of swallowing and breathing D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

Description : Before the nurse can develop a relevant care plan, the nurse understands that in post-laryngectomy, the trachea and the esophagus are permanently separated. Therefore, which of the ... with difficulty of swallowing and breathing D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

Last Answer : D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

Which of the following “awareness contexts” is characterized by the patient, the family, and the health care professionals being aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise? a) Mutual pretense awareness In mutual pretense awareness, the patient, the family and the health care professionals are aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise. b) Closed awareness In closed awareness, the patient is unaware of his terminality in a context where others are aware. c) Suspected awareness In suspected awareness, the patient suspects what others know and attempts to find it out. d) Open awareness In open awareness, all are aware that the patient is dying and are able to openly acknowledge that reality.

Description : Which of the following awareness contexts is characterized by the patient, the family, and the health care professionals being aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise? a) Mutual ... , all are aware that the patient is dying and are able to openly acknowledge that reality.

Last Answer : a) Mutual pretense awareness In mutual pretense awareness, the patient, the family and the health care professionals are aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise.

What is the functions of the neuron's axon?

Description : What is the functions of the neuron's axon?

Last Answer : the function of the neuron's axon is to carry messages to othercells

What is the functions of the neuron's axon?

Description : What is the functions of the neuron's axon?

Last Answer : the function of the neuron's axon is to carry messages to othercells

(4) Fundamental unit of nervous system Explanation: A neuron is a cell that carries electrical impulses. Neurons are the basic units of the nervous system and its most important part is the brain. Every neuron is made of a cell body (also called a soma), dendrites and an axon.

Description : (4) Fundamental unit of nervous system Explanation: A neuron is a cell that carries electrical impulses. Neurons are the basic units of the nervous system and its most important part is the brain. Every neuron is made of a cell body (also called a soma), dendrites and an axon.

Last Answer : Water cycle refers to - (1) an integrated attempt to recycle water in relatively arid regions (2) constant movement of water from ocean to land and back to ocean once again (3) ... management of water in areas excessively plagued with water-logging (4) water distribution in relatively dry area

Each preganglionic axon braches and can therefore synapse, with as many as a. 4 neurons b. 6 neurons c. 8 neurons d. 10 neurons

Description : Each preganglionic axon braches and can therefore synapse, with as many as a. 4 neurons b. 6 neurons c. 8 neurons d. 10 neurons

Last Answer : 10 neurons

If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision of diagnostic support and eventual release of vaccine if a case is confirmed. Until instructed otherwise by the CDC, healthcare providers should carefully establish isolation with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

Description : If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office ... very different from that of chickenpox. With chickenpox, lesions appear at different developmental stages.

Last Answer : a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision ... with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

Development of malignant melanoma is associated with which of the following risk factors? a) Individuals with a history of severe sunburn Ultraviolet rays are strongly suspected as the etiology of malignant melanoma.

Description : Development of malignant melanoma is associated with which of the following risk factors? a) Individuals with a history of severe sunburn Ultraviolet rays are strongly suspected as the etiology ... the southwestern United States appear to have a higher incidence of development of malignant melanoma.

Last Answer : a) Individuals with a history of severe sunburn Ultraviolet rays are strongly suspected as the etiology of malignant melanoma.

Which of the following statements reflects nursing care of the woman with mild to moderate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)? a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor her urine output and to return for frequent office visits. Management in mild and moderate cases of OHSS consists of decreased activity, monitoring of urine output and frequent office visits as designated by the reproductive endocrinologist.

Description : Which of the following statements reflects nursing care of the woman with mild to moderate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)? a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor ... for immediate hospitalization. The patient with severe OHSS is hospitalized for monitoring and treatment.

Last Answer : a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor her urine output and to return for frequent office visits. Management in mild and moderate cases of OHSS consists of decreased activity, monitoring of urine output and frequent office visits as designated by the reproductive endocrinologist.

A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. Within the next few days to months, the channels close as a result of the body’s inflammatory process of healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Description : A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. ... e.g., clopidigrel [Plavix]) therapy for 2 weeks and lifetime use of aspirin).

Last Answer : a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. ... healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Upper motor neuron lesions cause a) no muscle atrophy. Upper motor neuron lesions do not cause muscle atrophy but do cause loss of voluntary control.

Description : Upper motor neuron lesions cause a) no muscle atrophy. Upper motor neuron lesions do not cause muscle atrophy but do cause loss of voluntary control. b) decreased muscle tone. Lower motor ... paralysis. d) absent or decreased reflexes. Lower motor neuron lesions cause absent or decreased reflexes.

Last Answer : a) no muscle atrophy. Upper motor neuron lesions do not cause muscle atrophy but do cause loss of voluntary control.

What is the prognosis of Post-Polio Syndrome?

Description : What is the prognosis of Post-Polio Syndrome?

Last Answer : PPS is a very slowly progressing condition marked by long periods of stability. The severity of PPS depends on the degree of the residual weakness and disability an individual has after the ... from the original attack and subsequently develop PPS will most likely experience only mild PPS symptoms.

Define the treatment of Post-Polio Syndrome ?

Description : Define the treatment of Post-Polio Syndrome ?

Last Answer : Doctors recommend that polio survivors follow standard healthy lifestyle practices: consuming a well- balanced diet, exercising in moderation, and visiting a doctor regularly. A commonsense approach, ... immunoglobulin therapy may reduce pain, increase quality of life, and improve strength modestly.

What is Post-Polio Syndrome?

Description : What is Post-Polio Syndrome?

Last Answer : Post polio syndrome (PPS) is a condition that affects polio survivors anywhere from 10 to 40 years after recovery from an initial paralytic attack of the poliomyelitis virus. PPS is ... the individual's capacity to function independently. While polio is contagious, PPS is not transmissible.

Which of the following statements is not correct? (a) An action potential in an axon does not move backward because the segment behind is in a refractory phase. (b) Depolarisation of hair cells of cochlea results in the opening of the mechanically gated potassium-ion channels. (c) Rods are very sensitive and contribute to daylight vision. (d) In the knee-jerk reflex, stimulus is the stretching of muscle and response is its contraction.

Description : Which of the following statements is not correct? (a) An action potential in an axon does not move backward because the segment behind is in a refractory phase. (b) Depolarisation of hair cells ... d) In the knee-jerk reflex, stimulus is the stretching of muscle and response is its contraction.

Last Answer : (c) Rods are very sensitive and contribute to daylight vision.

Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients during an examination of neurologic function include which of the following? a) Decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients include decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes.

Description : Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients during an examination of neurologic function include which of the following? a) Decreased or absent deep ... and movement times Strength and agility are diminished and reaction and movement times are decreased.

Last Answer : a) Decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients include decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes.

Of the following terms, which refers to the progressive hearing loss associated with aging? a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss.

Description : Of the following terms, which refers to the progressive hearing loss associated with aging? a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss. b) Exostoses Exostoses refers ... loss of hearing related to damage of the end organ for hearing and/or cranial nerve VIII.

Last Answer : a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss.

The nurse reading the physician’s report of an elderly patient’s physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

Description : The nurse reading the physician's report of an elderly patient's physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is ... red moles. Cherry angioma is the term that is used to describe a bright red mole.

Last Answer : a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

Ageism refers to a) Bias against older people based solely on chronological age Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration of functional capacity. b) fear of old age. Fear of aging and the inability of many to confront their own aging process may trigger ageist beliefs. c) loss of memory. Age-related loss of memory occurs more with short-term and recent memory. d) benign senescent forgetfulness. Benign senescent forgetfulness refers to the age-related loss of memory in the absence of a pathologic process.

Description : Ageism refers to a) Bias against older people based solely on chronological age Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration ... refers to the age-related loss of memory in the absence of a pathologic process.

Last Answer : a) Bias against older people based solely on chronological age Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration of functional capacity.

Lower motor neuron lesions cause a) flaccid muscle paralysis. Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccid muscle paralysis, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control.

Description : Lower motor neuron lesions cause a) flaccid muscle paralysis. Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccid muscle paralysis, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control. ... d) hyperactive and abnormal reflexes. Upper motor neuron lesions cause hyperactive and abnormal reflexes.

Last Answer : a) flaccid muscle paralysis. Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccid muscle paralysis, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control.

Passive range-of-motion exercises are indicated during which stage of rheumatic disease? a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone during an acute stage of rheumatic disease.

Description : Passive range-of-motion exercises are indicated during which stage of rheumatic disease? a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone ... Active range of motion and isometrics are recommended during the remission stage of rheumatic diseases.

Last Answer : a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone during an acute stage of rheumatic disease.

Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress, impaired functioning, or accentuated risk of enduring severe suffering or possible death? a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994. b) Emotional disorder There is no universally accepted definition of what constitutes an emotional disorder. c) Anxiety Anxiety is defined as fear of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Description : Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress ... of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Last Answer : a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994.

For which of the following medications must the nurse contact the pharmacist in consultation when the patient receives all oral medications by feeding tube? a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated tablets are meant to be digested in the intestinal tract and may be destroyed by stomach acids. A change of form of medication is required by patients with tube feedings.

Description : For which of the following medications must the nurse contact the pharmacist in consultation when the patient receives all oral medications by feeding tube? a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated ... make an opening in the capsule and squeeze out contents for administration by feeding tube.

Last Answer : a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated tablets are meant to be digested in the intestinal tract and may be destroyed by stomach acids. A change of form of medication is required by patients with tube feedings.

A 45-year-old solicitor had an onset of severe, crushing, substernal chest pain while attending a football match. He collapsed on his way to the car. Bystander Cardiorespiratory Resuscitation was begun immediately and continued until arrival in Casualty where an endotracheal tube was inserted and ventilation was maintained on 100% oxygen. Investigations revealed: pH 7.13 PaO2 560 mmHg PaCO2 18 mmHg Bicarbonate 5.8 SaO2 98% Based on these laboratory values, which of the following statements best describes his current pathophysiology? 1) He is demonstrating a primary respiratory alkalosis 2) He probably developed a large right to left intracardiac shunt 3) His anion gap is probably normal 4) His oxyhemoglobin curve is shifted to the left 5) His pulmonary artery pressure is probably elevated

Description : A 45-year-old solicitor had an onset of severe, crushing, substernal chest pain while attending a football match. He collapsed on his way to the car. Bystander Cardiorespiratory Resuscitation ... His oxyhemoglobin curve is shifted to the left 5) His pulmonary artery pressure is probably elevated

Last Answer : Answers-5 This young patient with severe central chest pain has probably arrested due to myocardial infarction and arrhythmia. His gases reveal high PO2 following 100% O2 but severe acidosis ... no left to right shunting and high pulmonary pressures would be expected after this arrest scenario.

Researchers working on the accurate calculation of the distance of Milky Way to the nearest galaxy found the exact distance to our nearest galaxy, Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC). What is the exact distance? a) 163000 light years b) 175000 light years c) 183000 light years d) 150000 light years

Description : Researchers working on the accurate calculation of the distance of Milky Way to the nearest galaxy found the exact distance to our nearest galaxy, Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC). What is the exact distance? a) 163000 light years b) 175000 light years c) 183000 light years d) 150000 light years

Last Answer : Answer: (a) 163000 light years

if you suspect atrial flutter : Consider digoxin if not already in use because it frequently increases the conduction ratio and decreases the ventricular rate. , Avoid adrenergic and atropinic agents during sedation or anesthesia for cardioversion. Ketamine is relatively contraindicatedthe cause of premature ventricular contraction? decrease O2 supply to the muscle decrease blood supply to the muscle the heart trying to beat fast ______________________________

Description : if you suspect atrial flutter : Consider digoxin if not already in use because it frequently increases the conduction ratio and decreases the ventricular rate. , Avoid adrenergic and ... to the muscle decrease blood supply to the muscle the heart trying to beat fast ______________________________

Last Answer : decrease O2 supply to the muscle

63. A hypertensive client is taking herbal supplement for his hypertension. He was prescribed antihypertensive medication. The client wants to continue taking his herbal medication to lower his blood pressure. The nurse’s most appropriate action is to

Description : 63. A hypertensive client is taking herbal supplement for his hypertension. He was prescribed antihypertensive medication. The client wants to continue taking his herbal medication to lower his blood pressure. The nurse’s most appropriate action is to

Last Answer : B. Tell the client that herbal supplements have no proven therapeutic effects

As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the top dressing B. Continue to monitor the vital signs C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Description : As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the ... C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Last Answer : D. Assess the presence of a drain

Why are linearly separable problems of interest of neural network researchers? a) Because they are the only class of problem that network can solve successfully b) Because they are the only class of problem that Perceptron can solve successfully c) Because they are the only mathematical functions that are continue d) Because they are the only mathematical functions you can draw

Description : Why are linearly separable problems of interest of neural network researchers? a) Because they are the only class of problem that network can solve successfully b) Because they are the only ... mathematical functions that are continue d) Because they are the only mathematical functions you can draw

Last Answer : b) Because they are the only class of problem that Perceptron can solve successfully

The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

Description : The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in ... severe, burning pain, local edema, hyperesthesia, muscle spasms, and vasomotor skin changes.

Last Answer : a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Of the following common problems of the upper extremities, which results from entrapment of the median nerve at the wrist? a) Carpal tunnel syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome is commonly due to repetitive hand activities.

Description : Of the following common problems of the upper extremities, which results from entrapment of the median nerve at the wrist? a) Carpal tunnel syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome is commonly due to ... syndrome Impingement syndrome is associated with the shoulder and may progress to a rotator cuff tear.

Last Answer : a) Carpal tunnel syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome is commonly due to repetitive hand activities.

Korsakoff’s syndrome is characterized by a) psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations. Korsakoff’s syndrome is a personality disorder characterized by psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations.

Description : Korsakoff's syndrome is characterized by a) psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations. Korsakoff's syndrome is a personality disorder characterized by psychosis, ... Huntington's disease results in progressive involuntary choreiform (dancelike) movement and dementia.

Last Answer : a) psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations. Korsakoff’s syndrome is a personality disorder characterized by psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations.

When the patient’s eosinophil count is 50-90% of blood leukocytes, the nurse interprets the result as a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell count, the patient is demonstrating severe eosinophilia.

Description : When the patient's eosinophil count is 50-90% of blood leukocytes, the nurse interprets the result as a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell ... d) normal. Eosinophils normally make up 1-3% of the total number of white blood cells.

Last Answer : a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell count, the patient is demonstrating severe eosinophilia.

Which of the following disorders is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a) Cushing’s syndrome The patient with Cushing’s syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

Description : Which of the following disorders is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a) Cushing's syndrome The patient ... individual with Hashimoto's disease demonstrates inflammation of the thyroid gland, resulting in hypothyroidism.

Last Answer : a) Cushing’s syndrome The patient with Cushing’s syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest results from a displaced sternum. c) Flail chest Flail chest results when the ribs are fractured. d) Funnel chest Funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan’s syndrome or rickets.

Description : Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest Barrel chest results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest ... depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan's syndrome or rickets.

Last Answer : a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position.

The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. b) barrel chest. A barrel chest is seen in patients with emphysema as a result of overinflation of the lungs. c) funnel chest. A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum. d) kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Description : The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan's syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. ... kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Last Answer : a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis.

Which of the following states is characterized by a decline in intellectual functioning? a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of such severity that it interferes with the person’s customary occupational and social performance. b) Depression Depression is a mood disorder that disrupts quality of life. c) Delirium Delirium is often called acute confusional state. d) Delusion Delusion is a symptom of psychoses.

Description : Which of the following states is characterized by a decline in intellectual functioning? a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of ... is often called acute confusional state. d) Delusion Delusion is a symptom of psychoses.

Last Answer : a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of such severity that it interferes with the person’s customary occupational and social performance.

Nondisjunction of a chromosome results in which of the following diagnoses? a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two copies of a particular chromosome (nondisjunction) Down syndrome results from three number 21 chromosomes. b) Huntingon Disease Huntington disease is one example of a germ-line mutation. c) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an inherited form of muscular dystrophy, is an example of a genetic caused by structural gene mutations. d) Marphan Syndrome Marphan Syndrome is a genetic condition that may occur in a single family member as a result of spontaneous mutation.

Description : Nondisjunction of a chromosome results in which of the following diagnoses? a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two ... genetic condition that may occur in a single family member as a result of spontaneous mutation.

Last Answer : a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two copies of a particular chromosome (nondisjunction) Down syndrome results from three number 21 chromosomes.

The nurse teaches the patient with allergies about anaphylaxis including which of the following statements? a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common cause of anaphylaxis, accounting for about 75% of fatal anaphylactic reactions in the U.S., is penicillin.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with allergies about anaphylaxis including which of the following statements? a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common ... 30 minutes of exposure involving cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and integumentary organ systems.

Last Answer : a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common cause of anaphylaxis, accounting for about 75% of fatal anaphylactic reactions in the U.S., is penicillin.

The nurse teaches the patient about glargine (Lantus), a “peakless” basal insulin including which of the following statements? a) Do not mix the drug with other insulins Because glargine is in a suspension with a pH of 4, it cannot be mixed with other insulins because this would cause precipitation. When administering glargine (Lantus) insulin it is very important to read the label carefully and to avoid mistaking Lantus insulin for Lente insulin and vice versa.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient about glargine (Lantus), a peakless basal insulin including which of the following statements? a) Do not mix the drug with other insulins Because glargine is in a ... action Glargine is a peakless basal insulin that is absorbed very slowly over a 24-hour period.

Last Answer : a) Do not mix the drug with other insulins Because glargine is in a suspension with a pH of 4, it cannot be mixed with other insulins because this would cause precipitation. When administering ... to read the label carefully and to avoid mistaking Lantus insulin for Lente insulin and vice versa.

When a wheat farmer stores 100 bushes of regular wheat in silo the warehouse must return the exact same 100 bushes to the farmer that he originally stored T or F?

Description : When a wheat farmer stores 100 bushes of regular wheat in silo the warehouse must return the exact same 100 bushes to the farmer that he originally stored T or F?

Last Answer : Need answer

Which of the following statements describe refractive surgery? a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is considered a cosmetic procedure (to achieve clear vision without the aid of prosthetic devices). It is performed to reshape the cornea for the purpose of correction of all refractive errors.

Description : Which of the following statements describe refractive surgery? a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is ... a stable refractive error. The corneal structure must be normal and refractive error stable.

Last Answer : a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is considered a cosmetic procedure (to achieve clear vision without ... is performed to reshape the cornea for the purpose of correction of all refractive errors.